MCQ
$4{\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{1}{5} - {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{1}{{239}}$ is equal to
  • A
    $\pi $
  • B
    $\frac{\pi }{2}$
  • C
    $\frac{\pi }{3}$
  • $\frac{\pi }{4}$

Answer

Correct option: D.
$\frac{\pi }{4}$
d
(d) Since $2{\tan ^{ - 1}}x = {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{2x}}{{1 - {x^2}}}$

$\therefore$ $4{\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{1}{5} = 2\,\left[ {2{{\tan }^{ - 1}}\frac{1}{5}} \right] = 2{\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{\frac{2}{5}}}{{1 - \frac{1}{{25}}}}$

$ = 2{\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{10}}{{24}} = {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{\frac{{20}}{{24}}}}{{1 - \frac{{100}}{{576}}}} = {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{120}}{{119}}$

So, $4{\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{1}{5} - {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{1}{{239}} = {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{120}}{{119}} - {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{1}{{239}}$

$ = {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{\frac{{120}}{{119}} - \frac{1}{{239}}}}{{1 + \frac{{120}}{{119}}.\frac{1}{{239}}}} = {\tan ^{ - 1}}\frac{{(120 \times 239) - 119}}{{(119 \times 239) + 120}}$

==> ${\tan ^{ - 1}}1 = \frac{\pi }{4}$.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

If $\int\limits^\alpha_0\frac{1}{1+4\text{x}^2}\text{ dx}=\frac{\pi}{8},$ then a equals:

  1. $\frac{\pi}{2}$

  2. $\frac{1}{2}$

  3. $\frac{\pi}{4}$

  4. $1$

The solution of the equation $\frac{{dy}}{{dx}} = {(x + y)^2}$ is
One coin is thrown $100$ times. The probability of coming tail in odd number
Let $f: R-\left\{\frac{\alpha}{6}\right\} \rightarrow R$ be defined by $f(x)=\frac{5 x+3}{6 x-\alpha} .$ Then the value of $\alpha$ for which $(fof)(x)=x$, for all $x \in R-\left\{\frac{\alpha}{6}\right\}$, is:
If $x^2 + y^2 + sin\, y = 4$, then the value of $\frac{{{d^2}y}}{{d{x^2}}}$ at the point $(- 2, 0)$ is
If $\text{P}(\text{A}\cup\text{B})=0.8$ and $\text{P}(\text{A}\cap\text{B})=0.3$ then $\text{P}(\overline{\text{A}})=\text{P}(\overline{\text{B}})=$
If $p$ and $ q$ are positive real numbers such that ${p^2} + {q^2} = 1$ then , the maximum value of $(p+q)$ is
Let $S$ be set of all real numbers ; then on set $S$ relation $R$ defined as $R = \{\ (a, b) : 1 + ab > 0\ \}$ is
Let $f(x)=2+\cos x$ for all real $x$.

$STATEMENT -1$ : For each real $\mathrm{t}$, there exists a point $\mathrm{c}$ in $[\mathrm{t}, \mathrm{t}+\pi]$ such that $\mathrm{f}^{\prime}(\mathrm{c})=0$. because

$STATEMENT -2$: $f(t)=f(t+2 \pi)$ for each real $t$.

If $\text{A}=\begin{bmatrix}\text{n}&0&0\\0&\text{n}&0\\0&0&\text{n}\end{bmatrix}$ and $\text{B}=\begin{bmatrix}\text{a}_1&\text{a}_2&\text{a}_3\\\text{b}_1&\text{b}_2&\text{b}_3\\\text{c}_1&\text{c}_2&\text{c}_3\end{bmatrix},$ then AB is equal to:
  1. B
  2. nB
  3. Bn
  4. A + B