MCQ
A particle moves in the $X-Y$ plane under the influence of a force such that its linear momentum is $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}(t)=A[\hat{\mathrm{i}} \cos (\mathrm{kt})-\hat{\mathrm{j}} \sin (\mathrm{kt})]$, where $A$ and $k$ are constants. The angle between the force and the momentum is
  • A
    $0^{\circ}$
  • B
    $30^{\circ}$
  • C
    $45^{\circ}$
  • $90^{\circ}$

Answer

Correct option: D.
$90^{\circ}$
d
The correct option is $D 90^{\circ}$

Given,

$\vec{p}(t)=A \cos (k t) \hat{i}-A \sin (k t) \hat{j}$

As we know, $\vec{F}(t)=\frac{d \vec{p}}{d t}$

$\vec{F}(t)=\frac{d \vec{p}}{d t} $

$=-A k \sin (k t) \hat{i}-A k \cos (k t) \hat{j}$

We know, $\vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}=|A||B| \cos \theta$

[ $\theta$ is angle between $\vec{A}$ and $\vec{B}$ ]

Then, $\vec{F}(t) \cdot \vec{p}(t)=|\vec{F}(t)||\vec{p}(t)| \cos \theta$

Here,

$|\vec{F}(t)|=\sqrt{(-A k \sin (k t))^2+(-A k \cos (k t))^2}=A k$

$|\vec{p}(t)|=\sqrt{(A \cos (k t))^2+(-A \sin (k t))^2}=A$

$\Rightarrow \vec{F}(t) \cdot \vec{p}(t)=(A k)(A) \cos \theta \ldots(3)$

But we also know,

$\vec{F}(t) \cdot \vec{p}(t)=[-A k \sin (k t) \hat{i}-A k \cos (k t) \hat{j}] \cdot[A \cos (k t) \hat{i}-A \sin (k t) \hat{j}]$

$=0 \ldots(4)$

From (3) and (4),

$0=(A k)(A) \cos \theta$

$\Rightarrow \cos \theta=0$

$\therefore \theta=90^{\circ}$

Angle between the force and momentum is $90^{\circ}$.

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