Biotechnology and its Applications — BIOLOGY STD 12 Science — Question

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally three types of passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are small fragments fanned by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases.

1. Reverse transcriptase enzyme was discovered by:

1. Temin and Baltimore.
2. Cohen and Boyer.
3. Arber and Nathan.
4. Paul Berg.

2. During cDNA formation, what would happen if DNA formed by reverse transcriptase is not treated with the alkali?

1. cDNA will not be digested.
2. mRNA will not be digested.
3. Hydrogen bonds will not form between base pairs.
4. rnRNA will not be formed.

3. Enzyme that helps in the formation of double stranded cDNA is:

1. DNA synthetase
2. Ligase
3. DNA polymerase
4. Helicase.

4. DNA polymerase can be obtained form:

1. Retrovirus.
2. Agrobacteriurn.
3. Tobacco mosaic virus.
4. Thermus aquaticus.

5. DNA synthesised without a template is referred to as:

1. Complementary DNA.
2. Random DNA.
3. Synthetic DNA.
4. Z-DNA..

Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Explain how this can be accomplished.###How biofertilizers increase fertility of soil?

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Ginkgo tree has been saved from extinction by selective breeding followed by channeling into trade of nature lovers. This is an ex-situ conservation, where endangered species are protected from all adverse factors. Offspring produced in captive breeding are released in natural habitat for acclimatisation.

1. What is the significance of offsite collections?

1. Restock depleted populations.
2. Protection of endangered species.
3. Reintroduce species in wild.
4. All of these.

2. Which of the following is not an ex-situ conservation?

1. Wetlands
2. Orchards
3. Aquaria
4. Botanical gardens.

3. Select the incorrect statements for ex-situ conservation.

1. It is conservation of species outside their natural habitats.
2. Endangered species are kept under human supervision and provided all the essentials.
3. The species population recovers in natural environment.
4. Both (b) and (c).

4. Conditions maintained in seed banks for orthodox seeds are:

1. Low moisture content.
2. Anaerobic conditions.
3. Low temperature.
4. All of these.

5. Assertion: Animal species which have become extinct in wild continue to be maintained in zoological parks.

Reason: Captive breeding is the conservation of those cases where these is no realistic chance of in-situ survival.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

Explain innate immunity in detail

Explain any two X-linked recessive disorder?

Explain the life cycle of Plasmodium (with diagram).

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
In prokaryotes, DNA is circular and present in the cytoplasm but in eukaryotes, DNA is linear and mainly confined to the nucleus. DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is a long polymer of nucleotides. In 1953, the first correct double-helical structure of DNA was worked out by Watson and Crick. Based on the X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin. It is composed of three components, i.e., A phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogenous base. Different forms of DNA are B-DNA, Z-DNA, A-DNA, C-DNA and D-DNA.

1. Name the linkage present between the nitrogen base and pentose sugar in DNA.

1. Phosphodiester bond
2. Phosphodiester bond
3. Hydrogen bond
4. None of these

2. The double helix structure of DNA was proposed by.

1. James Watson and Francis Crick.
2. Earwin Chargaff
3. Federick Griffith
4. Hershey and Chase.

3. The double chain of B-DNA is coiled in a helical fashion. The spiral twisting of B-DNA duplex produces.

1. Right and left part.
2. Major and minor grooves.
3. Upper and lower side.
4. Linear and circular part.

4. Assertion: The two strands of DNA helix have uniform distance between them.

Reason: A large sized purine always paired opposite to a small sized pyrimidine.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

5. Which of the following describes the structure of B-DNA?

S.no	Polynudeotide chains	Polynudeotide chains
(a)	Parallel	5
(b)	Anti-parallel	10
(c)	Parallel	15
(d)	Anti-parallel	20

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic divisions in zygote and forms blastula. The 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells are called blastomeres. Embryo with 64 blastomeres is known as blastocyst and has blastocoel cavity. Blastocyst gets implanted in uterine wall and leads to pregnancy.

1. Solid mass of cells with 16 blastomeres is called:

1. Morula.
2. Blastula.
3. Gastrula.
4. Zygote.

2. At which stage of embryonic development, trophoectoderm develops?

1. Zygote.
2. Morula.
3. Blastula.
4. Gastrula.

3. Site of implantation is:

1. Endometrium of uterus.
2. Cervix.
3. Uterine fundus.
4. Infundibulum of oviduct.

4. Correct sequence of various structures formed during embryonic development is:

1. Morula → Embryo → Gastrula → Blastula.
2. Zygote → Embryo → Morula → Blastula.
3. Blastula → Morula → Gastrula → Embryo.
4. Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula.

5. Assertion: Side of blastocyst with inner cell mass is called animal pole.

Reason: Inner cell mass gives rise to embryo.

1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Oogenesis is the process of formation of ovum in ovaries. It consists of three phases : multiplication, growth and maturation. Oogenesis is controlled by hormones GnRH, LH, FSH. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH.

1. What is the function of hormone FSH?

1. It inhibits the formation of estrogen.
2. It induces the release of secondary oocyte.
3. It stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles.
4. It causes ovulation.

2. Which hormone induces the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle?

1. Follicle stimulating hormone.
2. Gonadotropin releasing hormone.
3. Progesterone.
4. Luteinising hormone.

3. Which cell division is involved in the formation of secondary oocyte?

1. Mitosis.
2. Meiosis I.
3. Amitosis.
4. Meiosis II.

4. Identify the function(s) of LH.

1. Release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle.
2. Stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
3. Stimulates estrogen formation.
4. Promotes development of egg to form secondary oocyte.

1. (A) and (B) only.
2. (B) and (C) only.
3. (A), (C) and (D) only.
4. (B) only.

5. Assertion: The increase in progesterone level exerts positive feedback on GnRH.

Reason: The rising level of progesterone stimulate production of FSH and LH.

1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.