MCQ
Choose the correct answer from the given four options. Suppose a random variable $X$ follows the binomial distribution with parameters $n$ and $p,$ where $0 < p < 1.$ If $\frac{\text{P}(\text{x}=\text{r})}{\text{P}(\text{x}=\text{n}–\text{r})}$ is independent of $n$ and $r,$ then $p$ equals :
- ✓$\frac{1}{2}$
- B$\frac{1}{3}$
- C$\frac{1}{5}$
- D$\frac{1}{7}$