Choose the correct answer from the given four options.
Suppose a random variable X follows the binomial distribution with parameters n and p, where 0 < p < 1. If $\frac{\text{P}(\text{x}=\text{r})}{\text{P}(\text{x}=\text{n}–\text{r})}$ is independent of n and r, then p equals:
Suppose a random variable X follows the binomial distribution with parameters n and p, where 0 < p < 1. If $\frac{\text{P}(\text{x}=\text{r})}{\text{P}(\text{x}=\text{n}–\text{r})}$ is independent of n and r, then p equals:
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