Question
If either $\vec{a}=\vec{0}\ \ \text{or}\ \ \vec{b}=\vec{0},\ \ \text{then}\ \ \vec{a}\times\vec{b}=\vec{0}.$ Is the converse true? Justify your answer with an example.
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$\begin{bmatrix} 2 & -1 & 3 \\ 1 & 2 &4 \\ 3 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$