Question
If either $\vec{\text{a}}=\vec{0}$ or $\vec{\text{b}}=\vec{0},$ then $\vec{\text{a}}.\vec{\text{b}}=0.$ But the converse need not be true. Justify your answer with an example.
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$\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{\cos x}{3 \cos x+\sin x} d x$