MCQ
If $P(A)=\frac{1}{2}, P(B)=0,$ then $P(A | B)$ is
  • A
    $0$
  • Not defined
  • C
    $\frac {1}{2}$
  • D
    $1$

Answer

Correct option: B.
Not defined
b
It is given that $P(A)=\frac{1}{2}$ and $P(B)=0$

$P(A | B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{0}$

Therefore, $\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} | \mathrm{B})$ is not defined.

Thus, the correct answer is $B$.

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