Question
If $\text{A}=\begin{bmatrix}\cos\alpha&\sin\alpha\\-\sin\alpha&\cos\alpha\end{bmatrix},$ then verify that $A^TA = I_2$.
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| $\text{x}^{2}=2\text{y}^2\log\text{y}$ | : | $(\text{x}^2+\text{y}^2)\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}-\text{xy}=0$ |
| $x_i$ | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| $p_i$ | 0.4 | 0.1 | 0.2 | 0.3 |