Question
If $\text{P}\text{(A}\cup\text{B)} = \text{P}\text{(A}\cap\text{B)}$ for any two events A and B, the
$\text{P(A)}=\text{P(B)}$
$\text{P(A)}>\text{P(B)}$
$\text{P(A)}<\text{P(B)}$
None of these.
$\text{P(A)}=\text{P(B)}$
$\text{P(A)}>\text{P(B)}$
$\text{P(A)}<\text{P(B)}$
None of these.