Question
If $\frac{\text{P}}{\text{q}}$ is a rational number and $m$ is a non-zero integer, then $\frac{\text{P}\times\text{m}}{\text{q}\times\text{m}}$ is a rational number not equivalent to $\frac{\text{P}}{\text{q}}.$

Answer

Let $m = 1, 2, 3,...$
When $m = 2,$ then,
$\frac{\text{P}\times\text{m}}{\text{q}\times\text{m}}=\frac{\text{P}\times1}{\text{q}\times1}=\frac{\text{P}}{\text{q}}$
When $m = 2,$
then, $\frac{\text{P}\times\text{m}}{\text{q}\times\text{m}}=\frac{\text{P}\times2}{\text{q}\times2}=\frac{\text{P}}{\text{q}}$For any non-zero value of $m,$
$\frac{\text{P}\times\text{m}}{\text{q}\times\text{m}}$ is always equivalent to $\frac{\text{P}}{\text{q}}.$

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