Question
If $\text{x}=\sin\text{t}$ and $\text{y}=\sin\text{pt},$ prove that $(1-\text{x}^2)\frac{\text{d}^2\text{y}}{\text{dx}^2}-\text{x}\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}+\text{p}^2\text{ y}=0.$

Answer

We have, $\text{x}=\sin\text{t}$ and $\text{y}=\sin\text{pt}$
$\therefore\ \frac{\text{dx}}{\text{dt}}=\cos\text{t}$ and $\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dt}}=\text{p}\cos\text{pt}$
$\Rightarrow\ \frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}=\frac{\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dt}}}{\frac{\text{dx}}{\text{dt}}}=\frac{\text{p}\cdot\cos\text{pt}}{\cos\text{t}}$
$\Rightarrow\ \text{y}'=\frac{\text{p}\cdot\cos\text{pt}}{\cos\text{t}}$
$\Rightarrow\ \text{y}'^2\cos^2\text{t}=\text{p}^2\cos^2\text{pt}$
$\Rightarrow\ \text{y}'^{2}(1-\sin^2\text{t})=\text{p}^2(1-\sin^2\text{pt})$
$\Rightarrow\ \text{y}'^2(1-\text{x}^2)=\text{p}^2(1-\text{y}^2)$
Differentiating above w.r.t. x, we get
$2\text{y}'\text{y}''(1-\text{x}^2)-2\text{xy}'^2=\text{p}^2(-2\text{yy}')$
$\Rightarrow\ \text{y}''(1-\text{x}^2)-\text{xy}'=-\text{p}^2\text{y}$
$\Rightarrow\ \text{y}''(1-\text{x}^2)-\text{xy}'+\text{p}^2\text{y}=0$

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