MCQ
If the gravitational force between two objects were proportional to $\frac{1}{R}$ (and not as $1/{R^2})$ where $R$ is separation between them, then a particle in circular orbit under such a force would have its orbital speed $v$ proportional to
- A$\frac{1}{{R^2}}$
- ✓${R^0}$
- C${R^1}$
- D$\frac{1}{R}$

