- Exactly one root.
- Almost one root.
- At least one root.
- No root.
Solution:
We observe that, $\text{n}\text{a}_{\text{n}}\text{x}^{\text{n}-1}+(\text{n}-1)\text{a}_{\text{n}-1}\text{x}^{\text{n}-2}+...+\text{a}_1=0$ is the derivative of the polynomial $\text{a}_{\text{n}}\text{x}^{\text{n}}+\text{a}_{\text{n}-1}\text{x}^{\text{n}-1}+\text{a}_{\text{n}-2}\text{x}^{\text{n}-2}+...\text{a}_2\text{x}^2+\text{a}_1\text{x}+\text{a}_0=0$Polynomial function is continuous everywhere in R and concequently derivative in R.
Therefore, $\text{a}_{\text{n}}\text{x}^{\text{n}}+\text{a}_{\text{n}-1}\text{x}^{\text{n}-1}+\text{a}_{\text{n}-2}\text{x}^{\text{n}-2}+...\text{a}_2\text{x}^2+\text{a}_1\text{x}+\text{a}_0$ is continuous on $\alpha,\beta$ and derivative on $\alpha,\beta.$
Hence, it is satisfies the both the conditions of Rolle's theorem.
By algebric interpretation of Roll's theorem, we know that between any two roots of a function f(x), there exists atleast one root of its derivative.
Hence, the equation $\text{n}\text{a}_{\text{n}}\text{x}^{\text{n}-1}+(\text{n}-1)\text{a}_{\text{n}-1}\text{x}^{\text{n}-2}+...+\text{a}_1=0$ will have atleast one root between $\alpha$ and $\beta.$
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$\left(1+\cos ^{2} \theta\right) x+\sin ^{2} \theta y+4 \sin 3 \theta z=0$
$\cos ^{2} \theta x+\left(1+\sin ^{2} \theta\right) y+4 \sin 3 \theta z=0$
$\cos ^{2} \theta x+\sin ^{2} \theta y+(1+4 \sin 3 \theta) z=0$
has a non-trivial solution, then the value of $\theta$ is :
{where $x,y \in R^+, x^2y + x \ne 0$ }