MCQ
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{a^2 \cdot \sin ^2 x+b^2 \cdot \cos ^2 x}$ dx is equal to
  • A
    $\frac{\pi a }{4 b}$
  • B
    $\frac{\pi a }{2 b}$
  • C
    $\frac{\pi b}{4 a}$
  • $\frac{\pi}{2 a b}$

Answer

Correct option: D.
$\frac{\pi}{2 a b}$
(D)
Let $I =\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{ a ^2 \cdot \sin ^2 x+ b ^2 \cdot \cos ^2 x} d x$
$=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\cos ^2 x\left( a ^2 \tan ^2 x+ b ^2\right)} d x$
$=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sec ^2 x}{b^2+ a ^2 \tan ^2 x} d x$
Put a $\tan x= t \Rightarrow a ^{2 e c} x d x= dt$
$\therefore \quad I=\frac{1}{a} \int_0^{\infty} \frac{d t}{b^2+t^2}$
$=\frac{1}{ ab }\left[\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{ t }{ b }\right)\right]_0^{\infty}=\frac{\pi}{2 ab }$

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free