- A$\pi \log \frac{1}{2}$
- ✓$\pi \log 2$
- C$2\pi \log \frac{1}{2}$
- D$2\pi \log 2$
Put $x = \tan \theta \Rightarrow dx = {\sec ^2}\theta \,d\theta ,$
$\therefore $ $I = \int_0^{\pi /2} {\log {{(\sec \theta )}^2}d\theta = 2\int_0^{\pi /2} {\log \sec \theta \,\,d\theta } } $
$ = - 2\int_0^{\pi /2} {\log \cos \theta \,\,d\theta = - 2.\,\,\frac{\pi }{2}\log \frac{1}{2}} $
$ = - \pi \log \frac{1}{2} = \pi \log 2$.
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Which of the following statements are true?
$I.$ There are infinitely many $x \in[0,1]$ for which $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x)=0$
$II.$ There are infinitely many $x \in[0,1]$ for which $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x)=\frac{1}{2}$
$III.$ There are infinitely many $x \in[0,1]$ for which $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x)=1$
$IV.$ There are infinitely many $x \in[0,1]$ for which $\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x)$ does not exist.