MCQ
$\int\limits^{\pi}_0\frac{1}{1+\sin\text{x}}\text{ dx}$ equals :
- A$0$
- B$\frac{1}{2}$
- ✓$2$
- D$\frac{3}{2}$
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$h (x) = \{x\}$ $k (x) = {5^{{{\log }_2}(x\, + \,3)}}$then in $[0, 1]$ Lagranges Mean Value Theorem is $NOT$ applicable to