Question
Is function cos x decreasing on ($0, \frac{\pi}{2}$)?

Answer

Let $f_1(x) = cos x$
$\therefore$ $\mathrm{f}_{1}^{\prime}(\mathrm{x})$ = -sin x
In interval $\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$, $\mathrm{f}_{1}^{\prime}(\mathrm{x})$ = -sin x < 0.
Therefore, $f_1(x)$ = cos x is strictly decreasing in interval $\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free