MCQ
Let $I_n=\int_0^1 e^{-y} y^n d y$, where $n$ is a non-negative integer. Then, $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{I_n}{n !}$ is
  • A
    $ 1$
  • B
    $1-\frac{1}{e}$
  • $\frac{1}{e}$
  • D
    $1+\frac{1}{e}$

Answer

Correct option: C.
$\frac{1}{e}$
c
(c)

We have, $J_n=\int_0^1 e^{-y} y^n d y$

$I_n =\left[-y^n e^{-y}\right]_0^1+\int_0^1 n y^{n-1} e^{-y} d y$

$I_n =-\frac{1}{e}+n I_{n-1}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{I_n}{n !} =\frac{-1}{n ! e}+\frac{I_{n-1}}{(n-1) !}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{I_n}{n !}-\frac{I_{n-1}}{(n-1) !}=\frac{-1}{n ! e}$

$n =1 \frac{I_1}{1 !}-\frac{I_0}{0 !}=-\frac{1}{e}$

$n =2 \frac{I_2}{2 !}-\frac{I_1}{1 !}=-\frac{1}{2 ! e}$

$n =3 \frac{I_3}{3 !}-\frac{I_1}{2 !}=-\frac{1}{3 ! e}$

$n =n \frac{I_n}{n !}-\frac{I_n}{n-1}=\frac{1}{n ! e}$

$\text { Adding these form, we get }$

$\frac{I_n}{n !}-I_0 =-\frac{1}{e}\left(1+\frac{1}{1 !}+\frac{1}{2 !}+\ldots+\frac{1}{n !}\right)$

$\frac{I_n}{n !} =\frac{I_0}{n !}-\frac{1}{e}\left(1+\frac{1}{1 !}+\frac{1}{2 !}+\ldots+\frac{1}{n !}\right)$

$n ! =\frac{1}{e}+1-\frac{1}{e}(e)\left[\because e=1+\frac{1}{1 !}+\frac{1}{2 !}+\ldots\right]$

$=\frac{1}{e}+1-1$

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free