MCQ
Let $\text{f(x)}\begin{cases}\text{ax}^2+1,&\text{x}<1\\\text{x}+\frac{1}{2},&\text{x}\leq1\end{cases}.$ Then, $f(x)$ is derivable at $x = 1,$ if:
  • A
    $a = 2$
  • B
    $a = 1$
  • C
    $a = 0$
  • $\text{a}=\frac{1}{2}$.

Answer

Correct option: D.
$\text{a}=\frac{1}{2}$.
Given: $\text{f(x)}=\begin{cases}\text{ax}^2+1,&\text{x}<1\\\text{x}+\frac{1}{2},&\text{x}\leq1\end{cases}$
The function is derivable at $x = 1$, if left hand derivative and right hand derivative of the function are equal at $x = 1.$
$(\text{LHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{x}\rightarrow1^{-}}\frac{\text{f(x)}-\text{f}(1)}{\text{x}-1}$
$(\text{LHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{h}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{f}(1-\text{h})-\text{f}(1)}{1-\text{h}-1}$
$(\text{LHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{h}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{f}(1-\text{h})-\text{f}(1)}{-\text{h}}$
$(\text{LHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{h}\rightarrow0}\frac{\Big(1-\text{h}+\frac{1}{2}\Big)-\frac{3}{2}}{-\text{h}}=1$
$(\text{RHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{x}\rightarrow1^{+}}\frac{\text{f(x)}-\text{f}(1)}{\text{x}-1}$
$(\text{RHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{h}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{f}(1+\text{h})-\text{f}(1)}{1+\text{h}-1}$
$(\text{RHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{h}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{f}(1+\text{h})-\text{f}(1)}{\text{h}}$
$(\text{RHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{h}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{a}(1+\text{h})^2+1-\frac{3}{2}}{\text{h}}$
$(\text{RHL}$ at $x = 1) =\lim\limits_{\text{h}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{a}(1-\text{h}^2+2\text{h})-\frac{1}{2}}{\text{h}}$
$\therefore\text{LHL}=\text{RHL}$
$\Rightarrow\text{a}-\frac{1}{2}=0$
$\Rightarrow\text{a}-\frac{1}{2}$

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free