MCQ
Let $\text{f(x)}=\begin{vmatrix}\cos\text{x}&\text{x}&1\\2\sin\text{x}&\text{x}&2\text{x}\\\sin\text{x}&\text{x}&\text{x}\end{vmatrix},$ then $\lim_\limits{\text{x}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{f(x)}}{\text{x}^2}$ is equal to:
  • $0$
  • B
    $-1$
  • C
    $2$
  • D
    $3$

Answer

Correct option: A.
$0$
$\text{f(x)}=\begin{vmatrix}\cos\text{x}&\text{x}&1\\2\sin\text{x}&\text{x}&2\text{x}\\\sin\text{x}&\text{x}&\text{x}\end{vmatrix}$
$=\begin{vmatrix}\cos\text{x}&\text{x}&1\\\sin\text{x}&0&\text{x}\\\sin\text{x}&\text{x}&\text{x}\end{vmatrix} [$Applying $R_2 \rightarrow R_2 - R_3]$
$=\begin{vmatrix}\cos\text{x}&\text{x}&1\\\sin\text{x}&0&\text{x}\\\sin\text{x}-\cos\text{x}&0&\text{x}-1\end{vmatrix} [$Applying $R_3 \rightarrow R_3 - R_1]$
$=-\text{x}[\text{x}\sin\text{x}-\sin\text{x}-\text{x}\sin\text{x}+\text{x}\cos\text{x}]$
$=-\text{x}(\text{x}\cos\text{x}-\sin\text{x})$
$\therefore\ \lim_\limits{\text{x}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{f(x)}}{\text{x}^2}=\lim_\limits{\text{x}\rightarrow0}\frac{\text{x}(\sin\text{x}-\text{x}\cos\text{x})}{\text{x}^2}$
$=\lim_\limits{\text{x}\rightarrow0}\frac{\sin\text{x}}{\text{x}^2}-\lim_\limits{\text{x}\rightarrow0}\cos\text{x}$
$=1-1=0$
Hence, the correct option is $(a)$

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free