Question
Prove that:
$\frac{\text{n!}}{(\text{n-r})!}= \text{n}(\text{n}-1)(\text{n}-2).....(\text{n}(\text{n}-\text{r}))$
$\frac{\text{n!}}{(\text{n-r})!}= \text{n}(\text{n}-1)(\text{n}-2).....(\text{n}(\text{n}-\text{r}))$
= R.H.S.
$\therefore$ L.H.S. = R.H.S.Hence proved.
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