Question
Prove that $\int\limits_{0}^{\text{a}}\text{f(x)}\text{dx}=\int\limits_{0}^{\text{a}}\text{f}(\text{a}-\text{x})\text{dx},$ hence evaluate $\int\limits_{0}^\pi\frac{\text{x}\sin\text{x}}{1+\cos^2\text{x}}\text{dx}.$
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