Question
Show that $\text{f}(\text{x})=\frac{1}{1+\text{x}^2}$ is neither increasing nor decreasing on R.

Answer

Here,

$\text{f}(\text{x})=\frac{1}{1+\text{x}^2}$

R can be divided into two intervals $0,\infty$ and $(-\infty,0].0,$

Case 1:

Let $\text{x}_1,\text{x}_2\in (0,\infty)$ such that $\text{x}_1<\text{x}_2.$ Then,

$\text{x}_1<\text{x}_2$

$\Rightarrow\text{x}_1^2<\text{x}_2^2$

$\Rightarrow1+\text{x}_1^2<1+\text{x}_2^2$

$\Rightarrow\frac{1}{1+\text{x}_1^2}>\frac{1}{1+\text{x}_2^2}$

$\Rightarrow\text{f}(\text{x}_1)>\text{f}(\text{x}_2)\ \forall\ \text{x}_1,\text{x}_2\in(0,\infty)$

So, f(x) is decreasing on $(0,\infty).$

Case 2:

Let $\text{x}_1,\text{x}_2\in(-\infty,0]$ such that $\text{x}_1<\text{x}_2.$

Then, $\text{x}_1<\text{x}_2$

$\Rightarrow\text{x}_1^2>\text{x}_2^2$

$\Rightarrow1+\text{x}_1^2>1+\text{x}_2^2$

$\Rightarrow\frac{1}{1+\text{x}_1^2}<\frac{1}{1+\text{x}_2^2}$

$\Rightarrow\text{f}(\text{x}_1)<\text{f}(\text{x}_2)$

$\Rightarrow\text{f}(\text{x}_1)<\text{f}(\text{x}_2)\ \forall\ \text{x}_1,\text{x}_2\in(-\infty,0]$

So, f(x) is increasing on $(-\infty,0].$

Here, f(x) is decreasing on $(0,\infty)$ and increasing on $(-\infty,0].$

Thus, f(x) is neither increasing nor decreasing on R.

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