Question
Show that $\text{f}(\text{x})=\frac{1}{\text{x}}$ is decreasing function on $(0,\infty).$
$\Rightarrow\frac{1}{\text{x}_1}<\frac{1}{\text{x}_2}$
$\Rightarrow\text{f}(\text{x}_1)<\text{f}(\text{x}_2)$ Thus, $\text{x}_1>\text{x}_2\Rightarrow\text{f}(\text{x}_1)<\text{f}(\text{x}_2)$ So, f(x) is decreasing function.Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.