Question
Show that : $\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log (1+\tan x) d x=\frac{\pi}{8} \log 2$
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$\hat{p} \cdot \hat{q}$
(ii) $\hat{p} \cdot \hat{r}$
$x=2 \cos t+\cos 2 t, y=2 \sin t-\sin 2 t$ at $t=\frac{\pi}{4}$
(p ˅ q) ˄ (∼p v ∼q) ≡ (p ∧ ∼q) ˄ (∼p ∧ q)