Question
Show that the curve $\frac{\text{x}^2}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}+\frac{\text{y}^2}{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}=1$ and $\frac{\text{x}^2}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_2}+\frac{\text{y}^2}{\text{b}^2+\lambda_2}=1$ intersect at right angles.
$\frac{\text{x}^2}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_2}+\frac{\text{y}^2}{\text{b}^2+\lambda_2}=1\ ...(2)$
Now we can find the slope of both the curve by differentiating w.r.t.x,
$\Rightarrow\frac{2\text{x}}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}+\frac{2\text{y}\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}}{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}=0\text{ and }\frac{2\text{x}}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_2}+\frac{2\text{y}\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}}{\text{b}^2+\lambda_2}=0$
$\Rightarrow\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}=-\frac{\text{x}}{\text{y}}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}\text{ and }\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}=-\frac{\text{x}}{\text{y}}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_2}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_2}$
$\Rightarrow\text{m}_1=-\frac{\text{x}}{\text{y}}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}\text{ and }\Rightarrow\text{m}_1=-\frac{\text{x}}{\text{y}}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_2}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_2}$
Substracting (2) from (1), we get,
$\text{x}^2\Big(\frac{1}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}-\frac{1}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_2}\Big)+\text{y}^2\Big(\frac{1}{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}-\frac{1}{\text{b}^2+\lambda_2}\Big)=0$
$\Rightarrow\frac{\text{x}^2}{\text{y}^2}=\frac{\lambda_2-\lambda_1}{(\text{b}^2+\lambda_1)(\text{b}^2+\lambda_2)}\times\frac{1}{\frac{\lambda_1-\lambda_2}{(\text{e}^2+\lambda_1)(\text{e}^2+\lambda_2)}}$
now,
$\text{m}_1\times\text{m}_2=\frac{\text{x}^2}{\text{y}^2}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_2}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_2}$
$=\frac{\lambda_2-\lambda_1}{(\text{b}^2+\lambda_1)(\text{b}^2+\lambda_2)}\times\frac{(\text{a}^2+\lambda_1)(\text{a}^2+\lambda_2)}{\lambda_1-\lambda_2}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}\times\frac{\text{b}^2+\lambda_1}{\text{a}^2+\lambda_1}$
$=-1$
Hence, (1) and (2) cuts orthogonally.
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