Question
$\text{Show that}\int^{\text{a}}\limits_{0}\text{f}\text{(x)}\text{g}\text{(x)}\text{dx}=2\int^{\text{a}}\limits_{0}\text{f}\text{(x)}\text{dx}\text,$if and are defined as $\text{f(x)}=\text{f(a}-\text{x)}$ and $\text{g(x)}+\text{g(a}-\text{x)}=4$