Gujarat BoardEnglish MediumSTD 11 ScienceMATHSComplex Numbers1 Mark
MCQ
The amplitude of $\frac{1}{\text{i}}$ is equal to:
A
0
B
$\frac{\pi}{2}$
✓
$-\frac{\pi}{2}$
D
$\pi$
✓
Answer
Correct option: C.
$-\frac{\pi}{2}$
Let $\text{z}=\frac{1}{\text{i}}$
$\text{z}=\frac{1}{\text{i}}\times\frac{\text{i}}{\text{i}}$
$\text{z}=\frac{\text{i}}{\text{i}^2}$
$\text{z}=-\text{i}$
Since, z (0, -1) lies on the negative imaginary axis . Therefore, $\text{arg(z)}=\frac{-\pi}{2}$
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