MCQ
The value of $\int\limits^{\pi}_0\frac{1}{5+3\cos\text{x}}\text{ dx}$ is :
  • $\frac{\pi}{4}$
  • B
    $\frac{\pi}{8}$
  • C
    $\frac{\pi}{2}$
  • D
    $0$

Answer

Correct option: A.
$\frac{\pi}{4}$
$\int\limits^{\pi}_0\frac{1}{5+3\cos\text{x}}\text{ dx}$
$=\int\limits^{\pi}_0\frac{1}{5+3\frac{1-\tan^{2}\frac{\text{x}}{2}}{1+\tan^{2}\frac{\text{x}}{2}}}\text{ dx}$
$=\int\limits^{\pi}_0\frac{1+\tan^{2}\frac{\text{x}}{2}}{5+5\tan^{2}\frac{\text{x}}{2}+3-3\tan^{2}\frac{\text{x}}{2}}$
$=\int\limits^{\pi}_0\frac{\sec^2\frac{\text{x}}{2}}{8+2\tan^{2}\frac{\text{x}}{2}}\text{ dx}$
Let $\tan\frac{\text{x}}{2}=\text{t},$ then $\sec^2\frac{\text{x}}{2}\text{ dx}=2\text{dt}$
When $\text{x}=0,\text{ t}=0,\text{x}=\pi,\text{ t}=\infty$
Therefore the integral becomes
$\frac{1}{2}\int\limits^{\infty}_0\frac{\text{dt}}{4+\text{t}^2}$
$=\frac{1}{2}\Big[\tan^{-1}\frac{\text{t}}{2}\Big]^{\infty}_0$
$=\frac{1}{2}\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}-0\Big)$
$=\frac{\pi}{4}$

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