Question
Verify Rolle's theorem of the following function on the indicated interval
$\text{f}(\text{x})=\cos2\text{x}\text{ on }\Big[\frac{-\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\Big]$

Answer

Here $\text{f}(\text{x})=\cos2\text{x}\text{ on }\Big[\frac{-\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\Big]$ We know that $\cos\text{x}$ is continuous and differentiable everywhere. So, f(x) is continuous in $\Big[\frac{-\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\Big]$ and differentiable is $\Big(\frac{-\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)$. Now, $\text{f}\Big(-\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)=\cos2\Big(-\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)=\cos\Big(-\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)=0$ $\text{f}\Big(\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)=\cos2\Big(\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)=\cos\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)=0$ $\Rightarrow\text{f}\Big(-\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)=\text{f}\Big(\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)$ So, Rolle's theorem is applicable, so, there must exist a $\text{c}\in\Big(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)$ such that f'(c) = 0 Now, $\text{f}'(\text{x})=2\sin2\text{x}$ $\text{f}'(\text{c})=2\sin2\text{c}=0$ $\Rightarrow\sin2\text{c}=0$ $\Rightarrow2\text{c}=0$$\Rightarrow\text{c}=0\in\Big(\frac{-\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\Big)$
Thus, Rolle's theorem verified.

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