Question
What per cent of $1$ day is $1\ min?$
✓
Answer
Let $x\%$ of $1\ day$ be $1\ min.$
Then, $\frac{\text{x}}{100}\times1\text{day}=1\text{min}$
$[\therefore 1\ day = 24\ h$ and $1h = 60\ min ]$
$\Rightarrow\frac{\text{x}}{100}\times24\text{h}=1\text{min}$
$\Rightarrow\frac{\text{x}}{100}\times1440\text{min}=1\text{min}$
$\Rightarrow\text{x}=\frac{100}{1440}=\frac{10}{144}$
$\therefore\text{x}=0.069\%$
Hence, $0.069\%$ of $1\ day$ is $1\ min.$
Then, $\frac{\text{x}}{100}\times1\text{day}=1\text{min}$
$[\therefore 1\ day = 24\ h$ and $1h = 60\ min ]$
$\Rightarrow\frac{\text{x}}{100}\times24\text{h}=1\text{min}$
$\Rightarrow\frac{\text{x}}{100}\times1440\text{min}=1\text{min}$
$\Rightarrow\text{x}=\frac{100}{1440}=\frac{10}{144}$
$\therefore\text{x}=0.069\%$
Hence, $0.069\%$ of $1\ day$ is $1\ min.$
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