Question
Write a short note on endosperm development.

Answer

→ Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
→ The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue.
→ The cells of this tissue are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of the developing embryo.
→ In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei. This stage of endosperm development is called free-nuclear endosperm.
→ Subsequently cell wall formation occurs and the endosperm becomes cellular.
→ The number of free nuclei formed before cellularisation varies greatly.
→ The coconut water from tender coconut that you are familiar with, is nothing but free- nuclear endosperm (made up of thousands of nuclei) and the surrounding white kernel is the cellular endosperm.
→ Endosperm may either be completely consumed by the developing embryo (e.g., pea, groundnut, beans) before seed maturation or it may persist in the mature seed (e.g. castor and coconut) and be used up during seed germination.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Ginkgo tree has been saved from extinction by selective breeding followed by channeling into trade of nature lovers. This is an ex-situ conservation, where endangered species are protected from all adverse factors. Offspring produced in captive breeding are released in natural habitat for acclimatisation.

  1. What is the significance of offsite collections?
  1. Restock depleted populations.
  2. Protection of endangered species.
  3. Reintroduce species in wild.
  4. All of these.
  1. Which of the following is not an ex-situ conservation?
  1. Wetlands
  2. Orchards
  3. Aquaria
  4. Botanical gardens.
  1. Select the incorrect statements for ex-situ conservation.
  1. It is conservation of species outside their natural habitats.
  2. Endangered species are kept under human supervision and provided all the essentials.
  3. The species population recovers in natural environment.
  4. Both (b) and (c).
  1. Conditions maintained in seed banks for orthodox seeds are:
  1. Low moisture content.
  2. Anaerobic conditions.
  3. Low temperature.
  4. All of these.
  1. Assertion: Animal species which have become extinct in wild continue to be maintained in zoological parks.

Reason: Captive breeding is the conservation of those cases where these is no realistic chance of in-situ survival.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

The mature ovum or a female gamete is spherical in shape. The human ovum is almost free of yolk and is said to be alecithal. Human ovum loses its ability to be fertilised about 24 hours after ovulation. Refer to the given structure of ovum and answer the following questions.

  1. Thick cellular layer formed of radially elongated follicular cells is:
  1. Zona pellucida.
  2. Plasma membrane.
  3. Perivitelline membrane.
  4. Corona radiata.
  1. In humans, at which stage does ovum get released from ovary?
  1. Secondary oocyte.
  2. Oogonium.
  3. Primary oocyte.
  4. First polar body.
  1. Cytoplasm of an ovum is enveloped by _____.
  1. Zona pellucida.
  2. Corona radiata.
  3. Cell membrane.
  4. Perivitelline space.
  1. Select the correct option:
S. No
V
W
X
(a)
Cytoplasm
Zona pellucida
Plasma membrane
(b)
Cortical granules
Corona radiata
Zona pellucida
(c)
Cortical granules
Plasma membrane
Corona radiata
(d)
Cytoplasm
Corona radiata
Zona pellucida
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ovum?
  1. Nucleus of an ovum has prominent nucleolus.
  2. Only one ovum formed from one oogonium.
  3. It lacks centrioles.
  4. It has very small amount of ooplasm.
Explain the inheritance of one gene by Punnett Square ?
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

A technique known as amniocentesis is used to determine fetal abnormalities. This test chromosomal pattern in amniotic fluid. However, this technique is legally banned now.

  1. Identify X and Y in the above given figure.
S. No
X
Y
(a)
Amnion
Chorion
(b)
Uterine wall
Placenta
(c)
Placenta
Uterine wall
(d)
Uterine wall
Amnion
  1. What is the function of Z?
  1. Z is an amniotic fluid which prevents dessication of an embryo.
  2. Z is yolk sac which functions as site of early blood cell formation.
  3. Z is amnion, which takes part in placenta formation.
  4. None of these
  1. Which of the following diseases can not be diagnosed by amniocentesis?
  1. Down's syndrome.
  2. Sickle cell disease.
  3. Jaundice.
  4. Cystic fibrosis.
  1. Assertion: Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination.

Reason: Amniocentesis was being misused for aborting normal female fetus.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
  1. Which of these is a non-invasive technique of detecting fetal disorder?
  1. Fetoscopy.
  2. Chorionic villi sampling.
  3. Amniocentesis.
  4. Ultrasound imaging.
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi which are surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood. The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between the developing embryo (foetus) and the maternal body.
Image
i. Name the hormone crucial in parturition. Does the parturition signal originate from the mother or the fetus?(1)
ii. When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? (1)
iii. Woman has conceived and implantation has occurred. Discuss the impact of progesterone and estrogen. (2)
OR
Fetal ejection reflex leads to parturition. Justify (2)
Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Explain loss of biodiversity.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Within a region, species richness increases with increasing explored area, but only upto a limit. TI1e given graph explains this relationship.

  1. What does the given figure show?
  1. Rivet-popper hypothesis.
  2. Species-area relationship.
  3. Proportionate number of species of major taxa.
  4. $\alpha-\text{ecological diversity }$
  1. Equation for relationship (A) between species richness and area is:
  1. $\log\text{ S}=\log\text{ C}+\text{Z }\log\text{ A}$

  2. $\log\text{ C}=\log\text{ S}+\text{Z }\log\text{ A}$

  3. $\text{Z }\log\text{ A}=\log\text{ S}+\log\text{ C}$

  4. $\log\text{ S}=\log\text{ C}+\log\text{ A}$

  1. What is the value of slope of line or regression coefficient Z for frugivorous birds?
  1. 0.1 - 0.2
  2. 1.15
  3. 0.01 - 0.1
  4. 0.6 - 1.2
  1. The shape of curve for relationship between species richness and areas for wide variety of taxa is:
  1. Straight line.
  2. Parabola.
  3. Rectangular hyperbola.
  4. Bell shaped.
  1. Who gave this concept of increase in species richness with increasing offered area?
  1. Humboldt.
  2. Odum.
  3. Edward Wilson.
  4. Paul Ehrlich.
Give a detailed description of human male reproductive system. (Diagram required)
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

The process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides to synthesise a polymer of amino acids. The relationship between the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide and nucleotide sequence of DNA or mRNA is called genetic code. George Gamow suggested that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, code should be made up of three nucleotides.

  1. What is a codon?
  1. A length of DNA which codes for a particular protein.
  2. A part of the tRNA molecule to which a specific amino acid is attached.
  3. A part of the tRNA molecule which recognises the triplet code on the messenger RNA.
  4. A part of the messenger RNA molecule that has a sequence of bases coding for an amino acid.
  1. Three consecutive bases in the DNA molecule provide the code for each amino acid in a protein molecule. What is the maximum number of different triplets that could occurs?
  1. 16
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. 64
  1. Listed below are some amino acids and their corresponding mRNA triplets.
Amino acid
mRNA triplet
Phenylalanine
UUU
Lysine
AAG
Arginine
CGA
Alanine
GCA
Which DNA sequence would be needed to produce the following polypeptide sequence? Alanine-Arginine-Lysine-Phenylalanine

  1. $\text{CGT}\ \ \ \text{GCT}\ \ \ \text{TTC}\ \ \ \text{AAA}$

  2. $\text{CGT}\ \ \ \text{GCT}\ \ \ \text{TTC}\ \ \ \text{TTT}$

  3. $\text{CGU}\ \ \ \text{GCU}\ \ \ \text{UUC}\ \ \ \text{AAA}$

  4. $\text{CGU}\ \ \ \text{GCU}\ \ \ \text{UUC}\ \ \ \text{TTT}$

  1. Identify the non-sense codons among the following.
  1. AUG
  2. GUG
  3. UAA
  4. UGG
  1. A polypeptide is made using synthetic mRNA molecules as shown.
Synthetic mRNA used
Polypeptide produced
UUUAAAUUUAAA
Phenylalanine-Iysine-phenylalanine-Iysine

What are the DNA codes for the amino acids phenylalanine and lysine?

S.no
Phenylalanine
Lysine
(a)
AAA
TTT
(b)
AAA
UUU
(c)
GGG
CCC
(d)
TTT
GGG