Question
Write a short note on transcription unit.### Explain : Transcription unit

Answer

→ A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA :
(i) The Structural gene
(ii) A Promoter
(iii) A Terminator
(i) A structural gene:
→ There is a convention in defining the two strands of the DNA in the structural gene of a transcription unit.
→ Since the two strands have opposite polarity and the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase also catalyse the polymerisation in only one direction, that is, 5' → 3',
→ Template strand:
→ The strand that has the polarity 3' → 5' acts as a template, and is also referred to as template strand.
Coding strand :
→ The other strand which has the polarity (5'→ 3') and the sequence same as RNA (except thymine at the place of uracil), is displaced during transcription. Strangely, this strand (which does not code for anything) is referred to as coding strand.
→ All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with coding strand.
Image
Schematic structure of a transcription unit
(ii) A promoter:
→ The promoter and terminator flank the structural gene in a transcription unit.
→ The promoter is said to be located towards 5'-end (upstream) of the structural gene (the reference is made with respect to the polarity of coding strand).
→ It is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase and it is the presence of a promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.
(iii) A Terminator:
→ By switching its position with terminator, the definition of coding and template strands could be reversed.
→ The terminator is located towards 3'-end (downstream) of the coding strand and it usually defines the end of the process of transcription.
→ There are additional regulatory sequences that may be present further upstream or downstream to the promoter.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

How is a transgenic tobacco plant protected against Meloidogyne incognita? Explain the procedure.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Intrauterine devices are most widely accepted methods of contraception. These are used by females and are inserted by doctor or nurses in the uterus through vagina. However, these devices are not recommended for those who eventually intend to conceive.

  1. How does CuT prevent conception?
  1. Cu ions make uterus unsuitable for implantation.
  2. Cu ions make cervix hostile to the sperms.
  3. Cu ions suppress sperms motility.
  4. Cu ions inhibit ovulation.
  1. Which of the following IUDs makes uterus unsuitable for implantation?
  1. LNG-20.
  2. Multiload 375.
  3. Cu7.
  4. Lippes loop.
  1. Identify the correct statement for IUDs.
  1. They slowly release synthetic progesterone in the body.
  2. They increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
  3. They block entry of sperms through the cervix.
  4. Both (b) and (c).
  1. Select the correct matched pair.
  1. Hormone releasing IUD - LNG-20.
  2. Non-medicated IUD - Progestasert.
  3. Copper releasing IUD - Lippes loop.
  4. None of these.
  1. Assertion: IUDs can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.

Reason: IUDs can perforate uterus.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all female mammals. Mammary glands are paired structures that contain glandular tissue and variable amount of fat. Refer to the given figure of a mammary gland and answer the following questions.

  1. Mammary glands are modified:
  1. Sweat glands.
  2. Sebaceous glands.
  3. Sudoriferous glands.
  4. Lacrimal glands.
  1. Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
  1. P - Areola.
  2. Q - Lactiferous duct.
  3. S - Mammary duct.
  4. T - Mammary alveoli.
  1. Mammary ducts expand to form:
  1. Mammary alveoli.
  2. Mammary ampullae.
  3. Lactiferous ducts.
  4. Mammary tubules.
  1. What is areola?
  1. Grape-like clusters of milk secreting structures.
  2. Fatty tissue between the mammary lobes.
  3. Circular pigmented area of skin around nipple.
  4. Connective tissue that supports the alveoli and ducts.
  1. Assertion: The size of breast depends on the amount of adipose tissue.

Reason: The adipose tissue supports the alveoli and the ducts.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac, where the zygote is situated. Most zygotes divided only after certain amount of endosperm is formed. The early stages of embryo development are similar in both monocotyledons and dicotyledons. The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the globular heart-shaped and mature embryo. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons. Embryo of monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon.

  1. True embryo develops as a result of fusion of:
  1. Two polar nuclei of embryo sac.
  2. An egg cell and a male gamete.
  3. Synergid and male gamete.
  4. A male gamete and antipodals.
  1. Refer to the given diagram of the embryo of an angiospermous plant with parts labelled P, Q and R. Select the correct statement(s) regarding this.

  1. Part 'P' supplies nutrition to the developing embryo.
  2. Part 'Q' is the protective sheath of radicle and root cap.
  3. Part 'R' is the protective sheath of shoot apex and leaf primordia.
  4. The embryo shown in the diagram is present in members of Family Poaceae.
  1. (IV) only.
  2. (II) and (III) only.
  3. (I) and (IV) only.
  4. (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
  1. Which of the given statements are true?
  1. During the development of a dicot embryo, heart-shaped embryo is followed by globular embryo.
  2. The part of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is epicotyl, while the part below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl.
  3. Monocot seeds possess a single cotyledon, represented by scutellum.
  1. (I) and (II).
  2. (II) and (III).
  3. (I) and (III).
  4. (I), (II) and (III).
  1. Consider the following parts of an embryonal axis of a dicot seed.
  1. Hypocotyl.
  2. Epicotyl.
  3. Radicle.
  4. Plumule.

In which of the following the above parts are correctly arranged from top to base?

  1. (III) → (I) → (II) → (IV).
  2. (II) → (I) → (III) → (IV).
  3. (IV) → (II) → (I) → (III).
  4. (III) → (IV) → (II) → (I).
  1. In grass family, the cotyledon, is called:
  1. Epiblast.
  2. Plumule.
  3. Scutellum.
  4. Perisperm.
Given below is the pattern of temperature in a person suffering from a non-viral disease transmitted by mosquitoes. Study the graph and answer the questions that follow:
Image
A. Explain the factor(s) responsible for this pattern of temperature.
B. How does this pathogen multiply in the human body?
C. How is this infection transmitted to humans?
OR
D. Which stages of the life cycle of this pathogen are completed in the mosquito's gut?
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Translation is the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide. The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence bases in the mRNA. The amino acids are joined by a bond called peptide bond. Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis.
  1. Which ion is essential for association of both units of ribosome at the time of protein formation?
  1. Mg2+
  2. Mn2+
  3. CI-
  4. Ca2+
  1. During translation, how many initiation factors are required in eukaryotes for initiation reactions?
  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 9
  1. Which part of mRNA contains untranslated regions (UTR)?
  1. 3' end
  2. 5' end
  3. Either 3' or 5' end
  4. Both 5' end and 3' end
  1. Name the enzyme that helps in combining amino acid to its particular tRNA?
  1. Activating enzyme
  2. Amino-acyl tRNA-synthetas
  3. PeptidyI transferase
  4. Both (a) and (b)
  1. From the given list, select the translation machinery.
  1. mRNA
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Amino acids
  4. tRNAs
  5. Peptidyl transferase
  6. Amino acyl tRNA synthetase
  7. Pyrophosphatase
  1. (1), (2), (3), (4) and (6)
  2. (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)
  3. (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)
  4. (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7)
Explain Predation as population interaction with different example.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Alcohols are important industrial solvents. Ethanol, methanol, propanol and butanol are produced commercially by fermentation activity of some fungi, majorly yeasts. During fermentation, yeast cells convert cereal derived sugars into ethanol and CO2 At the same time hundreds of secondary metabolites that influence the aroma and taste of alcohol are produced. Sugar concentration affects the rate of fermentation reactions. Yeast cannot grow in very strong sugar solution. In case of complex carbohydrate containing nutrient media, 1% malt or Rhizopus is used along with yeasts. Hydrolysis of starch is carried out at high temperature for 30 ruins. 'Tile crushed food mixed with hot water for obtaining malt in called mash. 'Tile nutrient medium prior to fermentation in called wort. Wort is cooled down to appropriate temperature and inoculated with strain of yeast.

  1. Tile rate of alcohol production is measured on the basis of:
  1. Amount of sugar present in the medium.
  2. Amount of CO2 produced per unit time.
  3. Amount of yeast added in the medium.
  4. All of these.
  1. A number of chemicals are produced at the time of alcoholic fermentation with the change of nutrient media, pH and aeration. Select such by-product from the following.
  1. Phenylethanol.
  2. Amyl alcohol.
  3. Glycerol.
  4. All of these.
  1. During alcoholic fermentation of cereals and potato, the crushed food mixed with hot water for obtaining malt is called:
  1. Juice.
  2. Mash.
  3. Wort.
  4. None of these.
  1. Distilled alcohol with 95% ethanol content is called:
  1. Absolute alcohol.
  2. Rectified spirit.
  3. Gin.
  4. Brandy.
  1. Assertion: Rhizopus or 1% malt is used in the nutrient medium when it contains complex carbohydrates.

Reason: Yeast does not possess sufficient diastase or amylase. 

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A lymphocyte isa type of white blood cell. Enlarge. Blood cells. Blood contains many types of cells: white blood cells (monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and macrophages), red blood cells (erythrocytes), and platelets. Blood circulates through the body in the arteries and veins.
Image
i. Why are the antigens called antibody-generating chemicals? (1)
ii. Which two types of lymphocytes are involved in immunity? (1)
iii. Give the common site of formation of two types of lymphocytes. (2)
OR
What is the site of differentiation of two types of lymphocytes? (2)
Explain Species-Area relationships graph.