Question 12 Marks
Is it true that for any sets A and B, $P(A) \cup P(B) = P(A \cup B)?$Justify your answer.
Answer
View full question & answer→No, it is not true.
Take A = {1, 2} ad B = {2, 3}
Then $A \cup B = \{ 1,2,3\} $
$P(A) = \{ \phi ,\{ 1\} ,\{ 2\} ,\{ 1,2\} \}$
$P(B) = \{ \phi ,\{ 2\} ,\{ 3\} ,\{ 2,3\} \}$
$\therefore P(A) \cup P(B) = \{ \phi ,\{ 1\} ,\{ 2\} ,\{ 3\} ,\{ 1,2\} ,\{ 2,3\} \} $ . . (i)
$A \cup B = \{ 1,2,3\}$
Take A = {1, 2} ad B = {2, 3}
Then $A \cup B = \{ 1,2,3\} $
$P(A) = \{ \phi ,\{ 1\} ,\{ 2\} ,\{ 1,2\} \}$
$P(B) = \{ \phi ,\{ 2\} ,\{ 3\} ,\{ 2,3\} \}$
$\therefore P(A) \cup P(B) = \{ \phi ,\{ 1\} ,\{ 2\} ,\{ 3\} ,\{ 1,2\} ,\{ 2,3\} \} $ . . (i)
$A \cup B = \{ 1,2,3\}$
$P(A \cup B) = \{ \phi \}$,{1}, {2}, {3}, {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {1, 3}, {1, 2, 3}} . . . (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
$P(A \cup B) \ne P(A) \cup P(B)$
