Question 16 Marks
X and Y are partners in a firm. They admit Z into partnership for equal share. It was agreed that goodwill will be valued at three years' purchase of average profit of last five years. Profits for the last five years were:
Books of Account of the firm revealed that:
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Year Ended
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31st March, 2014
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31st March, 2015
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31st March, 2016
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31st March, 2017
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31st March, 2018
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Profit (₹)
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90,000 (Loss)
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1,60,000
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1,50,000
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65,000
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1,77,000
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- The firm had gain (profit) of ₹ 50,000 from sale of machinery sold in the year ended 31st March, 2015. The gain (profit) was credited in Profit and Loss Account.
- There was an abnormal loss of ₹ 20,000 incurred in the year ended 31st March, 2016 because of a machine becoming obsolete in accident.
- Overhauling cost of second hand machinery purchased on 1st July, 2016 amounting to ₹ 1,00,000 was debited to Repairs Account. Depreciation is charged @ 20% p.a. on Written Down Value Method.
Answer
View full question & answer→Goodwill = Average Profit × No. of years' purchase
= 1,00,000 × 3 = ₹ 3,00,000
Working Notes:
WN: 1 Calculation of Normal Profits
*Adjustment Amount
WN: 2 Calculation of Average Profit
$\text{Average Profit}=\frac{\text{Total Profit for past given years}}{\text{Number of Years}}$
$=\frac{5,00,000}{5}=₹\ 1,00,000$
= 1,00,000 × 3 = ₹ 3,00,000
Working Notes:
WN: 1 Calculation of Normal Profits
*Adjustment Amount
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Overhauling cost of second hand machinery wrongly accounted as expense instead of capital expenditure. Profit to be increase by ₹ 1,00,000
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1,00,000
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Depreciation to be debited from P&L A/c $\big(1,00,000\times\frac{20}{100}\times\frac{9}{12}\big)$
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(15,000)
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Amount to be added back
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85,000
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$\text{Average Profit}=\frac{\text{Total Profit for past given years}}{\text{Number of Years}}$
$=\frac{5,00,000}{5}=₹\ 1,00,000$
Working Notes: