Read The Following Text.(10M)

Question 110 Marks

(1) The United States Postal Service (also known as USPS, the Post Office, informally known as the P.O., or the U.S. Mail) is the third largest employer in the United States, after the Department of Defense and Walmart. It employs over 785,000 workers in over 14,000 U.S. postal facilities.
(2) The Postal Service has certainly grown and changed since 1775 when the first Postmaster General - Benjamin Franklin - was named to head the Post Office Department, the forerunner of the current USPS. At that time, members of the Second Continental Congress agreed that the Postmaster General headquarters, or most important offices, would be stationed in Philadelphia, and that the Postmaster would be paid 1,000 a year for his or her service.
(3) As the country grew westward, it became necessary for the railroad system to carry the mail. The Railway Mail Service (RMS) was initiated in 1862. The RMS workers sorted mail on the train, and became some of the fastest workers in the system. They sorted about 600 pieces of mail per hour. All the mail had to be sorted before the train reached the first stop, since some of the mail was destined for that first stop on the route.
(4) By 1918, the Post Office took over air mail from the U.S. Army. The first airplanes used in U.S. air mail were surplus planes from World War I. The Post Office started with only four pilots flying these leftover planes in August 1918, but by the end of that year, the Post Office had hired 36 more pilots. By 1920, over 49 million air mail letters had been delivered.
(5) The Post Office has used alternate methods of transmission during its history. It owned and operated the first telegraph lines from 1884 to 1887 - when the lines were privatized. It utilized "V-Mail" (Victory Mail) during World War II when U.S. military mail was put on microfilm in the U.S. and printed near its destination, in order to save space on military transport. During the 1980s, Electronic Computer Originated Mail, called ECOM, was used for some bulk mailings. Computer generated mail was printed near its destination, and bore a blue ECOM logo on its special envelopes.
(6) In 1970, the Postal Reorganization Act, signed by President Richard Nixon, replaced the Post Office Department (a Cabinet-level department) with the independent US Postal Service. The independent US Postal Service has streamlined its workload and modernized operations. Today's multi-line optical character readers (MLOCRs) can read the entire address on an envelope, print a barcode on the envelope, and sort the mail at the rate of nine letters per second. The zip code +4, a four digit code added to the end of the existing 5-digit code, has decreased the number of times a piece of mail needs to be handled.
(7) Special barcode sorters assign an 11-digit zip code to each address, apply a barcode to each letter, and sort the mail in order of delivery. The Postal Service has installed automated customer-service equipment in lobbies, and is planning to automate even more of its work, including more machines which will process parcels and forwarded mail. The price of a first-class stamp - recently approved at 44 cents and good for up to one-ounce domestic mail- seems relatively inexpensive compared to its predecessor; the first U.S. postage stamp, issued in 1847. The first stamps, adorned with a picture of Benjamin Franklin, sold for 5 cents apiece. They were used for letters weighing less than one ounce with a travel distance of less than 300 miles. By way of comparison, pay records available for the 1890s indicate that a typical year's pay for a schoolteacher was around 500, or 10,000 times the price of a stamp. Stamp prices then seem relatively high when compared to today's average teacher pay, in the 40,000 per-year range, or about 1,000,000 times the price of a postage stamp!

Answer the following questions based on the passage above.

i. The second largest employer in the US is (1)
A. United States Postal Service
B. Department of Defense
C Walmart
D. Domino's

Answer

i. C. Walmart
ii. C. 1862
iii. B. By sorting the mail on the train before every stop
iv. It was called Railway Mail Service (RMS).
V. Benjamin Franklin
vi. The mails were being carried through the railway system and this was initiated in 1862. The RMS workers become some of the fastest in the system. They used to sort mails on the train. And they were capable of sorting 600 mails per hour. The reason being some of the mails were supposed to be dropped at the first stop of the route.
vii. The independent US Postal service has streamlined its workload and modernized operations. MLOCRS (Multi- line Optical Character Readers) now can read the entire address on a mail, print a barcode on an envelope and sort the mail at a speed of nine letters per second. Also the zip code +4, a four digit code added to the end of the existing 5 digit code, has decreased the number of times a mail needs to be handled.
viii. False

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Question 210 Marks

(1) Referred to as 'nature's theatre, auroras have long fascinated the human race. During medieval times, the occurrences of auroral displays were seen as harbingers of war or famine. The Menominee Indians of North America believed that the lights indicated the location of giants who were the spirits of great hunters and fishermen. The Inuit community of Alaska believed that the lights were the spirits of the animals they hunted: the seals, salmon, deer, and beluga whales. Other aboriginal people believed that the lights were the spirits of their ancestors.
(2) The bright dancing lights of the aurora are actually collisions between electrically charged particles from the sun that enter the earth's atmosphere. The lights are seen above the magnetic poles of the northern and southern hemispheres. They are known as "aurora borealis' in the North Pole and 'aurora australis' in the South Pole. Scientists have learned that, in most instances, northern and southern auroras are mirror-like images that occur at the same time, with similar shapes and colours.
(3) Auroral displays can also be seen over the southern tip of Greenland and Iceland, the northern coast of Norway, and over the coastal waters north of Siberia. Southern auroras are not often seen as they are
concentrated in a ring around Antarctica and the southern Indian Ocean.
(4) Auroral displays appear in many colours, although pale green and pink are the most common. Common sightings of the same in shades of red, yellow, green, blue, and violet have been reported. Variations in colour are due to the type of gas particles in the Earth's atmosphere that is colliding with charged particles released from the sun's atmosphere. The most common auroral colour, a pale yellowish-green, is produced by oxygen molecules located about 96 kilometres above the earth. Rare, all-red auroras are produced by high-altitude oxygen, at heights of up to 320 kilometres from the Earth's surface. Nitrogen produces blue
or purplish-red aurora.
(5) The lights appear in many forms from patches of scattered clouds of light to streamers, arcs, rippling curtains or shooting rays that light up the sky with an eerie glow.
(6) Auroras are classified as diffuse or discrete. Most aurorae occur in a band known as the auroral zone. Diffuse aurora is a featureless glow in the sky which may not be visible to the naked eye even on a dark night. Discrete aurorae are sharply defined features within the diffuse aurora which vary in brightness from being just barely visible to the naked eye to being bright enough to read a newspaper at night. Discrete
aurorae are usually observed only in the night because they are not as bright as the sunlit sky.
(7) Whereas some people still connect various legends with aurorae, the fact remains that it will continue to fascinate people who experience it.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below."

i. Pick out the option that is correct according to the above passage. (1)
A. Inuit community of Alaska believed the lights were the spirits of animals they hunted.
B. Aboriginal believed that the lights indicated the location of giants.
C. Menominee Indians believed the lights were the spirits of their ancestors.
D. North Americans believed that the lights were the spirits of fishermen and hunters.

ii. According to the passage the lights are seen above the magnetic poles of the _________hemispheres.

iii. Pick out the correct option with reference to the above passage. (1)
A. Red auroras-high-altitudeoxygen
B. North pole aurora australis
C. South pole - aurora borealis
D. Hemispheres-Mirror like image

iv. Pick out the words from the given options that are synonyms of 'eerie.(1)

1. Earthly
2. Ordinary
3. Bizarre
4. Funny
5. Uncanny

A. 1 and 2
B. 4 and 5
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 5

v. Pick out the option that is not true about auroras as given in the above passage.(1)
A. Since very long, auroras have fascinated the human race.
B. Diffuse aurora can be seen with the naked eyes in the night.
C.The pale yellowish-green colour of aurora is produced by oxygen molecules.
D. Auroral displays can also be seen in shades of red, yellow, green, blue and violet.

vi. What are auroras?(2)

vii. Describe about the various colours of auroral displays.(2)

viii. State True or False.(1)
Discrete aurorae are mostly observed in early morning.

Answer

i. A. Inuit community of Alaska believed the lights were the spirits of animals they hunted.
ii. northern and southern
iii. A. Red auroras - high-altitude oxygen
iv. D. 3 and 5 V. B. Diffuse aurora can be seen with the naked eyes in the night.
vi. Auroras, the bright dancing lights are actually collisions between electrically charged particles from the sun that enter the earth's atmospheres. These lights can be seen above the magnetic poles of the northern and southern hemispheres. People have various beliefs regarding them. Some believe them to be spirits of animals and some their ancestors.
vii. Auroral displays appear in various colours. The most common ones are pink and pale green. Other common sightings are shades of red, yellow, green, blue and violet. The most common auroral colour, pale yellowish green, is produced by oxygen molecules and rare all-red auroras are produced by high altitude oxygen.
viii. False

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Question 310 Marks

(1) Thick black smoke curling out of smokestacks, horrible-tasting chemicals in your drinking water, pesticides in your food -- these are examples of pollution. Pollution is any contamination of the environment which causes harm to the environment or the inhabitants of the environment. There are many kinds of pollution, and there are many pollutants. Some obvious kinds of pollution are pollution of the air, soil, and water. Some less obvious, or less salient, kinds of pollution are radioactivity, noise and light pollution, and pollution by green-house gasses.
(2) Air pollution can be caused by particles, liquids, or gases that make the air harmful to breathe. There are two main types of air pollution: primary and secondary. Primary pollutants enter the air directly, like smoke from factories and car exhaust. Secondary pollutants are chemicals that mix together to pollute the air, like mixtures of emissions, or waste output, from vehicles and factory smoke that change to form more dangerous pollutants in the air and sunlight.
(3) Soil pollution can be caused by pesticides, leakage from chemical tanks, oil spills, and other chemicals which get into the soil by dumping or accidental contamination. Soil pollution can also cause water pollution when underground water becomes contaminated by coming in contact with the polluted soil. Water pollution can be caused by waste products, sewage, oil spills, and litter in streams, rivers, lakes, and oceans. Some scientists believe that water pollution is the largest cause of death and disease in the world.
causing about 14,000 deaths in the world each day.
(4) Radioactive pollution can be caused by leaks or spills of radioactive materials. These materials can come from medical sources, nuclear power plants, or laboratories which handle radioactive materials. Air, soil. and water can be polluted by radioactivity. It can cause damage to animals, both internally and externally, by eating, drinking, or touching it. It can cause birth defects and genetic problems. It can cause certain cancers and other deadly diseases.
(5) Noise pollution can be caused by vehicle, aircraft, and industrial noise. It can also be caused by military or experimental sonar. Noise has health effects on people and animals. In people, it can cause high blood pressure, heart problems, sleep disturbances, and hearing problems. In animals, it can cause communication, reproductive, and navigation problems - they have difficulty finding their direction. Sonar has even caused whales to beach themselves because they respond to the sonar as if it were another whale.
(6) Light pollution can be caused by advertising signs, stadium and city lighting, and other artificial lighting (like the light caused by night traffic). Artificial lighting has health effects on humans and animals. In people, it can cause high blood pressure and affect sleeping and waking rhythms and immunity. It might be a factor in some cancers, such as breast cancer. In animals, it can affect sleeping and waking rhythms, navigation, and reproduction.
(7) In addition, greenhouse gases have caused a warming effect on the earth's climate. The greenhouse gases are
water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, and ozone. They are naturally-occurring gases in the atmosphere,
but human activity has increased their concentration in the atmosphere. For example, the levels of carbon
dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere have risen due to the burning of fossil fuels. The effect is a rise in global temperatures. The higher temperatures cause the melting of glaciers, a rise in the water level of oceans, and the disruption of both land and marine life, including that of humans. Although carbon dioxide is necessary for plants to survive, it is also considered to be a kind of pollution because high levels of carbon dioxide have caused the oceans to become more acidic.
(8) It is not possible for anyone to predict the exact timing and effects of global pollution and global climate change brought about by pollution. There is general agreement by scientists that the global climate will continue to change, that the intensity of weather effects will continue to increase, and that some species of animals will become extinct. There is also general agreement, or consensus, that humans need to take steps to reduce emissions of waste products and greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, make adaptations to the changes that are occurring, and figure out ways of reversing the trends of pollution and global warming.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Air pollution makes________.(1)
A. air harmful to breathe
B. people fall ill
C. factories to work
D. children obese

ii. Burning of fossil fuels gave rise to_______.(1)
A. high levels of CO₂
B. radioactive materials
C. sonar
D. polluted soil

iii. Pick out the options that are the primary pollutants of air pollution. (1)

1. Factory smoke
2. Pesticides
3. Car exhaust
4. City lights

A. Both 1 and 3
B. Only 2
C. Both 3 and 4
D. Only 4

iv. How are whales effected by noise pollution?(1)

v. What should human beings do in order to protect environment?(1)

vi. What is pollution and its types?(2)

vii. Elaborate green-house gases.(2)

viii. State True or False.(1)
Radioactive pollutants can cause certain cancers and deadly diseases.

Answer

i. A. air harmful to breathe
ii. A. high levels of CO₂
iii. A. Both 1 and 3
iv. Whales beach themselves due to sonar, believing it to be another whale. v. Humans need to reduce emissions of waste products and make adaptations to the changes.
vi. Pollution is any type of contamination which causes harm to the environment or occupants of environment. There are various types of pollution. Some main kinds are air, soil and water. There are some less known pollution types too that are noise and light pollution, pollution by green house gases and radioactivity.
vii. Green house gases are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane and ozone. Basically they are naturally occurring gases in the atmosphere, however due to human activities, their concentration has increased significantly in the atmosphere. For example, due to the burning of fossil fuels, the levels of carbon dioxide has risen.
viii. True

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Question 410 Marks

(1) Millions of people in the United States are affected by eating disorders. More than 90% of those afflicted are adolescents or young adult women. Although all eating disorders share some common manifestations, anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating, each have distinctive symptoms and risks. People who intentionally starve themselves (even while experiencing severe hunger pangs) suffer from anorexia nervosa.

(2) The disorder, which usually begins around the time of puberty, involves extreme weight loss to at least 15% below the individual's normal body weight. Many people with the disorder look emaciated but are convinced they are overweight. In patients with anorexia nervosa, starvation can damage vital organs such as the heart and brain. To protect itself, the body shifts into slow gear: Menstrual periods stop, blood pressure rates drop, and thyroid function slows. Excessive thirst and frequent urination may occur. Dehydration contributes to constipation, and reduced body fat leads to lowered body temperature and the inability to withstand cold. Mild anemia, swollen joints, reduced muscle mass, and light-headedness also commonly occur in anorexia nervosa.

(3) Anorexia nervosa sufferers can exhibit sudden angry outbursts or become socially withdrawn. One in ten cases of anorexia nervosa leads to death from starvation, cardiac arrest, other medical complications, or suicide. Clinical depression and anxiety place many individuals with eating disorders at risk for suicidal behavior.

(4) People with bulimia nervosa consume large amounts of food and then rid their bodies of the excess calories by vomiting, abusing laxatives or diuretics, taking enemas, or exercising obsessively. Some use a combination of all these forms of purging. Individuals with bulimia who use drugs to stimulate vomiting, bowel movements, or urination may be in considerable danger, as this practice increases the risk of heart failure. Dieting heavily between episodes of binging and purging is common.

(5) Because many individuals with bulimia binge and purge in secret and maintain normal or above normal body weight, they can often successfully hide their problem for years. But bulimia nervosa patients-even those of normal weight can severely damage their bodies by frequent binge eating and purging. In rare instances, binge eating causes the stomach to rupture; purging may result in heart failure due to loss of vital minerals such as potassium. Vomiting can cause the esophagus to become inflamed and glands near the cheeks to become swollen. As in anorexia nervosa, bulimia may lead to irregular menstrual periods. Psychological effects include compulsive stealing as well as possible indications of obsessive-compulsive disorder, an illness characterized by repetitive thoughts and behaviors. Obsessive compulsive disorder can also accompany anorexia nervosa. As with anorexia nervosa, bulimia typically begins during adolescence. Eventually, half of those with anorexia nervosa will develop bulimia. The condition occurs most often in women but is also found in men.

(6) Binge-eating disorder is found in about 2% of the general population. As many as one-third of this group is men. It also affects older women, though with less frequency. Recent research shows that binge-eating disorder occurs in about 30% of people participating in medically supervised weight-control programs

(7) This disorder differs from bulimia because its sufferers do not purge. Individuals with binge eating disorder feel that they lose control of themselves when eating. They eat large quantities of food and do not stop until they are uncomfortably full. Most sufferers are overweight or obese and have a history of weight fluctuations. As a result, they are prone to the serious medical problems associated with obesity, such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and diabetes.

(8) Obese individuals also have a higher risk for gallbladder disease, heart disease, and some types of cancer. Usually they have more difficulty losing weight and keeping it off than do people with other serious weight problems. Like anorexic and bulimic sufferers who exhibit psychological problems, individuals with binge- eating disorder have high rates of simultaneously occurring psychiatric illnesses, especially depression. Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Obese individuals also have a risk of________.(1)
A. heart disease
C. gallbladder disease
B. some types of cancer
D. all of these

ii. How many cases of anorexia nervosa can have fatal consequences? (1)
A. 90 per cent
B. Ten out of twenty
C. 50 per cent
D. 1 in 10

iii. "Many people with the disorder look emaciated but are convinced they are overweight". The word 'emaciated' here means________. (1)
A. fat
B. skeletal
C. nervous
D. depressed

iv. According to the passage, which of the following is correct? (1)
A. Among the suffers of anorexia nervosa, half of them will eventually develop bulimia.
B. Binge eating disorder is found mainly in children.
C. People with bulimia nervosa keep themselves in starvation.
D. More than 90% of those afflicted with eating disorders are men and old-age people.

v. What makes people socially withdrawn?(1)

vi. What are the side effects of anorexia nervosa? (2)

vii. Discuss about binge-eating disorder. (2)

viii. State True or False. (1)
Binge eating disorder is found in about 30% of the general population.

Answer

i. D. all of these
ii. D. 1 in 10
iii. B. skeletal iv. A. Among the suffers of anorexia nervosa, half of them will eventually develop bulimia.
v. Anorexia nervosa can make people socially withdrawn.
vi. People who suffer from anorexia nervosa can exhibit sudden angry outbursts or become socially withdrawn. One out of ten anorexia nervosa cases, people can die from starva- tion, cardiac arrest or other medical complications. People also tend to become suicidal. People with eating disorders also suffer from clinical depression and anxiety.
vii. People who have binge eating disorder lose control of themselves while eating. They tend to eat large quantities of food and do not know when to stop. They only stop when they are uncomfortably full. Binge-eating sufferers are gen- erally obese and have fluctuations in weight. These people also suffer from high cholesterol, high blood pressure and diabetes.
viii. False.

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Question 510 Marks

(1)Nuclear capability gives a status to the country in the community of nations. No nation can afford to make destructive use of the nuclear energy without risking a World War. That is why America did not make use of nuclear weapon in the Vietnam War though it had become a matter of prestige for her. Similarly Russia preferred to pull out her missile bases from Cuba instead of coming in direct conflict with a nuclear power, America. But India, since she started adopting nuclear technology, had decided to make only peaceful use of nuclear energy. The fear expressed by Pakistan and the comments made in the Chinese press are more for the sake of propaganda than for the projection of truth.
(2)India needs nuclear energy in order to meet her power shortage. She has been depending upon hydroelectric power which is undependable because of the uncertainty of rainfall. Good quality of coal which is another source of energy cannot be extracted commercially because it lies very deep and the cost of extraction is very high. India is not producing much of oil, rather she has to import nearly 74 per cent of her total consumption. So the only alternative with India is to have a cheaper and more dependable source of energy. The known reserves of thorium in India are sufficient to last many hundred years. That is why India has already commissioned two nuclear power stations, one at Tarapur and the other at Rana Pratap Sagar. Each one has the installed capacity of producing 420 M.W. of electricity. Two other at Kalpakkam, are operational. This energy will be able to meet the power shortage throughout the country. If industries work at their full capacity, production will be higher and so per capita income will increase and inflation will be neutralized.
(3)With the help of controlled nuclear explosions, artificial dams can be made. In fact, for building a dam there should be two huge mountain walls enclosing a deep valley just near the course of a river. These conditions are not available at all the places. So with the help of controlled nuclear explosions mountains can be blown up. This can also help in laying roads in the mountainous areas. In fact, some of the borders of India have mountainous terrain and the movement of the army is quite difficult. So even for the sake of national security it is necessary to have roads in those areas.
(4)With the help of radiation the shelf life of vegetables and fruits can be increased. In the tropical countries like India, it is necessary that the perishable fruit stuffs are preserved for a long time. Radiation can check the sprouting of onions and potatoes which are much in demand in foreign countries. Similarly fruits like bananas and mangoes which have much export potential can be preserved for a very long time. The texture and taste of the fruit do not undergo any change.
(5)Nuclear technology can also be harnessed for medical purposes. It is said that radioactive iodine is used for detecting the disease of the thyroid glands. Similarly, 'India of U.N. experts, radiated vaccine which can immunize sheep from lungworm disease, which used to take a heavy toll on sheep every year.
(6) Properly processed nuclear fuel is also used for artificial satellite in space. Weather satellites can predict
cyclones and the rainfall with extreme accuracy. Communication satellites can help in conveying the messages to very long distances. In a huge country like India, communication satellites are necessary.
(7) Radiation is also used for preparing the mutant seeds. Many varieties of rice and some cereals have been prepared at Tarapur laboratory. This will increase our agricultural production and help India to become economically better off. So for India it is necessary to make peaceful uses of nuclear energy

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. India needs nuclear energy in order to______. (1)
A. gain status in the community of nations
B. meet her power shortage
C. increase her might
D. frighten the hostile countries

ii. Coal, another source of energy, cannot be extracted commercially because______(1)
A. it lies very deep
B. the cost of extraction is very high
C. it lies very deep and the cost of extraction is very high
D. it is risky for the miners to extract it

iii. In India_______ are sufficient to last many years. (1)
A. nuclear power stations
B. reserves of thorium
C. vegetables and fruits
D. radioactive iodine

iv._______is also used for preparing mutant seeds. (1)
A. Nuclear energy
B. Artificial satellites
C. Radiation
D. None of these

v. Hydroelectric power is not dependable because ________. (2)

vi. How can radiation be helpful? (2)

vii. How does nuclear technology help in the field of medicine? (1)

viii. State True or False. (1)
Nuclear energy can boost our communication by conveying the messages to very long distances.

Answer

i. B. meet her power shortage
ii. C. it lies very deep and the cost of extraction is very high
iii. B. reserves of thorium
iv. C. Radiation
v. there is uncertainty in rainfall.
vi. Radiation can increase the shelf life of vegetables and fruits. It can check the sprouting of onions and potatoes. In tropical countries like India, it is essential to preserve the perishable food items for a long time. Radiation can do it without changing the texture or taste of the fruit.
vii. Nuclear technology can be very helpful in the field of medicine. Radioactive iodine is said to be used for detecting the disease of the thyroid glands. Radiated vaccine can immunize sheep from lungworm disease.
viii. True

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Question 610 Marks

(1)In recent years, there has been a surge in both group and solo travel among young adults in India. Asurvey conducted among young adults aged 18-25 aimed to explore the reasons behind their travelpreferences and recorded the percentage variation for 10 common points that influence travel choices.
(2)Among those who prefer solo travel, the most common reason cited was the desire for independenceand freedom (58%), followed closely by the opportunity for introspection and self-discovery (52%).Additionally, solo travellers appreciated the ability to customize their itinerary to their preferences(44%) and the chance to meet new people on their own terms (36%).
(3)On the other hand, those who prefer group travel often cited the desire for socializing and making new friends (61%) as their primary reason. Group travel also provided a sense of security and safety in unfamiliar places (52%) and allowed for shared experiences and memories with others (48%).Additionally, group travellers enjoyed the convenience of having pre-planned itineraries and organized transportation (38%).
(4)Interestingly, both groups had similar levels of interest in exploring new cultures and trying newexperiences (40% for solo travellers, 36% for group travellers). Similarly, both groups valued the opportunity to relax and escape from the stresses of everyday life (36% for solo travellers, 32% for group travellers).
(5) However, there were also some notable differences between the two groups. For example, solo travellers placed a higher priority on budget-friendly travel options (38%) compared to group travellers (24%). Conversely, group travellers were more likely to prioritize luxury and comfort during their travels (28%) compared to solo travellers (12%).
(6) Overall, the survey results suggest that both group and solo travel have their own unique advantages and appeal to different individuals, based on their preferences and priorities. Created for academic usage / 290 words.

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Infer two possible ways that the survey , mentioned in paragraph (1) could be beneficial. Answer in about 40 words. (2)

ii. Which travel choice point of the survey would influence tour operators to incorporate group dinners, social events, and shared accommodations in their itinerary? (1)
A. Freedom to customise itinerary
B. Luxury and comfort
C. Security and safety
D. Desire for making new friends

iii What do the top choices in the survey, for traveling solo and in a group suggest about young adults?(1)

iv Identify the solo traveller from the following three travellers: (1)
(a) Reshma- I don’t want to keep hunting for rickshaws or taxis.
A pre-booked vehicle is perfect.
(b) Nawaz-I’m happy sharing a room in a hostel. I don’t need hotel accommodation.
(c) Deepak-I’m not worried about my well-being , even while exploring remote areas.

v. Which of the following is an example of an opportunity for self-discovery, as mentioned in paragraph 2? (1)
A. Trying new cuisine
B. Hiring a tour guide
C. Purchasing local artifacts
D. Advance booking travel tickets

vi. How might the differences in budget priorities between solo and group travellers impact the types of accommodations and activities offered by the travel industry in India? (2)

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately.(1)
The similarities in the percentage of both solo and group travellers who are interested in exploring new cultures and trying new experiences may be due to ________.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE.(1)
The title, "Wanderlust: The Solo Travel Trend Among Young Adults in India", is appropriate
for this passage.

Answer

i. Some possible ways: (Any 2/ relevant)
▪ Help travel companies to tailor their services to meet the preferences
and expectations of young adult travellers, leading to increased
customer satisfaction and loyalty.
▪ Provide insights for the development of new travel packages and
itineraries that cater to the specific needs and interests of young adult
travellers.
▪ Enable the tourism industry to better understand the changing
preferences and behaviours of young adult travellers, which can inform
future marketing and promotional strategies.
▪ Can help policymakers and tourism boards to identify key trends and
areas of growth in the tourism sector, and plan accordingly.
▪ Allow researchers to gain a better understanding of the motivations and
travel behaviours of young adults, which can inform academic studies
and literature in the field.
▪ Can provide a benchmark for comparison with similar studies conducted
in different regions or countries, helping to identify cross-cultural
differences in travel preferences.
▪ Help young adults themselves to gain a better understanding of their
own travel preferences and motivations, and make more informed
travel decisions in the future.
▪ Can highlight the importance of certain factors in the decision-making
process for young adult travellers, such as budget, safety, and cultural
exploration, which can inform discussions and debates around the
future of the tourism industry.

ii. D. Desire for making new friends

iii. The top choices in the survey, for traveling solo and in a group suggest that
young adult travellers value independence and freedom when traveling
alone and when traveling in a group, they value socializing and making new
friends.

iv. (b) Nawaz [solo traveller-budget friendly; (a) group traveller- organised transport; (c) group travellerhigh focus on safety and security]

v. A. trying new cuisine [ It allows an individual to explore new flavours and ingredientsthat they may not have been exposed to before, thus helping them discover more about themselves by way of likes/ dislikes]

vi. ▪ To cater to budget-conscious solo travellers, the industry may need to provide more affordable accommodation options such as hostels and budget hotels.
▪ For group travellers, the industry may need to focus on offering more luxury accommodations and experiences that cater to their desire for
comfort and convenience.

vii. (Any one)
▪ a shared desire for adventure
▪ a willingness to step outside of their comfort zones.
▪ the fact that that young adults in India are becoming more interested in
cultural exchange and global understanding
(Any other relevant)

viii. FALSE
[The passage is not about solo travel trend but more of solo vs group travel debate among
young adults in India]

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Question 710 Marks

1. An analysis of the seven IITs that stand in the top 10 of the National Institute Ranking framework shows that the disproportion in number of dropouts is starker at some institutions. IIT Guwahati holds the worst record, with 88% of its 25 dropouts hailing from the reserved categories. IIT Kharagpur has had the highest number of dropouts, with a whopping 79 students leaving the institution over the last five years. More than 60% are from the reserved categories.

2. The MHRD said high attrition rate in the undergraduate programmes could be attributed to “withdrawal due to wrong choices filled, poor academic performance, personal and medical reasons”. The MHRD added that the institutes were taking correctional measures to de-stress students; fee reductions, institute scholarships, priority access to national level scholarships to aid students with poor financial backgrounds to pursue their education are a few steps taken to prevent dropouts.

3. Somesh Kumar, Dean of Students Affairs at the IIT Kharagpur, said the the numbers are not alarming as 15% seats were reserved for the SC category, 7.5% for the STs and 27% for the OBC category, which makes it 49.5%. A counselling centre and a student welfare group that help students to manage stress have been set up.

PERCENTAGE OF DROPOUT IN SOME INSTITUTES
YEAR	IIT	IIM	OTHER INSTITUTIONS
2015–16	2.25	1.04	7.49
2016–17	1.60	1.06	8.56
2017–18	1.71	1.03	6.76
2018–19	1.46	0.50	5.36
2019–20	0.68	0.78	2.82

(Courtesy: MHRD)

4. Some social researchers disagree with Prof. Kumar. The usually high dropouts from the two IITs reflect that there could be some institutional factors. They should undertake a social climate assessment survey.

5. A coaching class for qualifying JEE provides students with enough superficial knowledge to clear the entrance, but the emphasis on fundamental knowledge is minimal. Consequently, studying the actual courses in IITs is a shocker. Reserved quota students who got admission on the basis of low cut-offs fail to gross qualifying marks during the semester assessments. The privilege for them ends with the entrance and only merit is what sustains an IITian.

6. Lack of English communication skills especially of those who studied in regional language medium pulls their overall academic performance down. Though the institute offers verbal proficiency classes, but either they are too late or too less. There are innumerable co-curricular opportunities in the IITs that can be overwhelmingly engaging. They can be a distraction when students over-invest themselves in them.

7. Then there’re those who take up a branch that they do not completely understand or which matches their ranks or looks glamorous to them until the time the academic session actually commences and reality hits them. Then the interest level falters.

8. Preparing for engineering is a part of the herd mentality. Peer pressure or family ambitions can pressure them into joining IIT with very little interest in the subject that they are going to study for the next four years; they obviously give up midway after suffering from poor grades.

9. To fail is human but not factoring in one’s aptitude and passion will guarantee failure.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) What is the main reason for the worst performance of the students who studied in regional languages? Why?

(b) Ironically, students who get into IITs due to a special privilege of low cut-offs for them, realize that _______________ .

I.their fundamental concepts are always shaky

II.the actual course content is tough

III.only merit is going to sustain them

IV.getting even minimum qualifying marks is a tough job

(i)only III

(ii)only IV

(iii)I and II

(iv)all except I

(c) How do you think that only merit sustains an IITian?

(d) Which of the following graphical representations show the correct data (to nearest approximation) for seat reservations in the IITs on the basis of socio-economic backwardness?

(i)1

(ii)2

(iii)3

(iv)4

(e) One is guaranteed a successful stint in any of the IITs, provided one has _______________ .

(i)good command over English and completing high school in English medium

(ii)qualifying JEE and knowing about different branches

(iii)the aptitude and passion for engineering

(iv)having a national level or an institutional scholarship

(f) What did MHRD say about correctional measures?

(g) Complete the sentence appropriately.

Preparation for engineering is a part of the _______________.

(h) State TRUE or FALSE.

There are innumerable co-curricular opportunities in the IITs.

Answer

(a) Lack of English communication skills especially for those who studied in regional languages is the reason for the worst performance of the students. Because the students of regional languages cannot compete in speaking with the students at national level.

(b) (iv) all except I

(c) It is a fact that in IIT, merit matters more than any other thing. Reserved quota students get admission on the basis of low cut-offs but fail in the semester assessments. In semester assessments, they have to compete with all the students. Their privilege of quota ends here.

(d) (i) 1

(e) (iii) the aptitude and passion for engineering

(f) The MHRD said that the institutes were taking correctional measures to de-stress students fee reductions, institute scholarships priority access to national level scholarships to aid students with poor financial background to pursue their education.

(g) herd mentality

(h) True

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Question 810 Marks

1. The unappealing vultures serve as the ultimate scavengers in the ecological cycle: processing dead bodies of animals. The near-extinction of vultures has caused disease in the country, as rats and dogs moved in to take their place—spreading pathogens that would have otherwise been destroyed by the vultures.
2. Only 20 years ago, India had plenty of vultures. But by 1999, their numbers had dropped due to a mysterious kidney ailment. By 2008, 99.9 per cent of India’s vultures were gone, killed by a drug called diclofenac (a pain reliever along the lines of aspirin or ibuprofen). Although India banned it for veterinary use in 2006, it’s still widely administered to cattle. The vultures eat the corpse and cannot digest diclofenac.
3. Vultures need large ranges to scan for food and undisturbed areas in which to nest. They also need an abundance of prey species since they rely more on chance than their own hunting skills to eat. Increased human activity and a dramatic rise in secondary poisoning is exterminating vultures that feed on carcasses laced with poison, intended to kill jackals or other predatory carnivores. Or they are poisoned by the lead in animals left behind by hunters. https://pg-data.sgp1.digitaloceanspaces.com/chapter_wise/18364/q3.png" alt="Image" width="450" height="" />
4. In one of the first birds examined, the internal organs were covered with a chalky white paste indicating visceral gout, a result of kidney failure. When a cow is given diclofenac, the drug breaks down quickly and becomes undetectable in the body. The vultures are exquisitely sensitive to diclofenac. Like other NSAIDs, such as aspirin, the drug suppresses production of compounds called prostaglandins, which reduces inflammation but can also have a number of other effects, including restricting blood flow in the kidneys. The malfunctioning organs stop removing uric acid from the blood, leading to rapid gout and death. The lethal dose of diclofenac in vultures is about one-tenth of the therapeutic dose for mammals by weight. In addition, it only takes the occasional tainted buffalo carcass to cause an outsized effect on the local vulture population. The scavengers soar high and spot every single large, dead animal over vast distances; dozens of birds then strip it clean in an hour, and die within days. If this happens enough times, deaths in a vulture colony soon outpace births. Most vultures don’t breed until they’re four or five years old, and the females lay only one egg a year, which may or may not hatch. Young birds face a number of threats in addition to poisoning, and as many as half do not survive to adulthood. Mathematical modelling suggests that as few as 1 in 760 contaminated carcasses could drive down the vulture population 30% per year.
5. The health impact of the vulture decline, including treatment costs, loss of life, and lost income, has been estimated at $34 billion just for the period from 1993 to 2006.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) Do you think those who leave Facebook are at one end of a spectrum? Support your answer with reference to the text.
(b) The company’s user base in the last quarter of 2019 was 195 million in US–Canada shrank when 15 million users bade goodbye to FB. Which of these graphical representations correctly shows the trend in percentage? https://pg-data.sgp1.digitaloceanspaces.com/chapter_wise/18364/q4.png" alt="Image" width="600" height="" />
(i)1
(ii)2
(iii)3
(iv)4
(c) What is social commitment generating?
(d) Even personal networks of individuals on Facebook have lost their edge and become _______________ . I.unmanageable owing to their large friend lists II.by and large useless and irrelevant III.less trustworthy IV.riddled with chinks despite tight privacy settings
(i)IV
(ii)II
(iii)I and III
(iv)all of the above
(e) The hitherto active users who have not much love lost for Facebook are ironically immune to _______________ . I.recent gigantic political scandals in the US II.networks becoming too large III.leakage of personal data IV.privacy policy of Facebook riddled with loopholes
(i)all of the above
(ii)all except II
(iii)all except III
(iv)all except IV
(f) What is one of the reasons for the success of social media?
(g) Complete the sentence appropriately. Deletion is a profound response to a set of emerging tensions between an evolving technology and _____________ .
(h) State TRUE or FALSE Approximately 12% of the global population now uses social media.

Answer

(a) Yes, those who leave Facebook are at one end of a spectrum as they work through questions of digital identity, responsibility and collective customs. Facebook deletion is not just a process of people who redefine their digital self.
(b) (i) 1
(c) The social commitment is generating a new form of digital labour.
(d) (iv) all of the above
(e) (ii) all except II
(f) One of the reasons for the success of social media is its ability to tap into our social instinct for knowledge sharing and exchange. As social networks grow on Facebook, it appears that the costs of mutual obligation start to outweigh the benefits of being connected.
(g) social life
(h) False

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Question 910 Marks

1. Earthquakes are one of the largest threats from moving plate tectonics in Indonesia as they come sudden and can strike in densely populated areas, such as the bigger cities. Earthquakes with a magnitude of around five or six on the Richter scale happen almost on a daily basis in Indonesia but usually cause no or little damage. When the magnitude becomes over seven on the Richter scale however, an earthquake can potentially do a lot of damage. Yearly, two or three earthquakes with a magnitude of seven or higher occur in Indonesia and cause casualties and damage the infrastructure or environment.

2. The table shows the location, date, magnitude and number of casualties that have resulted from recent earthquakes in Indonesia. There is a general trend for Sumatra and Java to be most heavily affected by earthquakes, at least in terms of lives lost, as suggested by the table. This is because both cities are located on the coast of Indonesia, meaning they are also potentially affected by underwater earthquakes that cause tsunamis. Furthermore, Sumatra has experienced the largest magnitude earthquakes with the 2004 earthquake registering 9.3 on the Richter scale and resulted in a staggering 283,106 casualties.

3. An earthquake that occurs underwater, in the oceans, almost always results in mass displacement of the water surrounding it. The height and destructive power of these waves depend on the magnitude of the earthquake that generated it. When the force of the waves created is strong enough, it is specifically identified as a tsunami. On average, it has been identified that a large tsunami (caused by an earthquake of magnitude 7+) reaches areas of Indonesia every five years, with most hitting the cities of Sumatra and Java. In general, evacuations are often made in time in tsunami-prone areas, as many Indonesians living in coastal cities are able to flee to the hills located further inland to avoid loss of life after being notified of an offshore earthquake. However, the existing infrastructure and agriculture are unable to be saved, meaning tsunamis often devastate the Indonesian economy.

Location	Date	Magnitude	Casualties
Sumatra	25 October 2010	7.7	435
Sumatra	30 September 2009	7.6	1,117
Java	17 July 2006	7.7	730
Java	26 May 2006	6.3	5,780
Sumatra	28 March 2005	8.6	1,313
Sumatra	26 December 2004	9.2	2,83,106

4. Just over a decade ago, on the 26th of December 2004, the Indian Ocean tsunami resulted from a giant underwater earthquake that occurred off the coast of northern Sumatra, in Banda Aceh, a city in Indonesia, This underwater earthquake was the result of a thrust fault that occurred in a subduction zone where the Australian plate was subducting under the European plate. As a result, the ocean floor broke, releasing its energy in a massive 9.1 magnitude earthquake, which subsequently caused large scale displacement of water in this region, ultimately generating massive tsunami waves which hit coastal communities surrounding the epicentre of the disaster, with the region of Aceh in Indonesia being hit the hardest in particular.

6. Indonesia was both the first and worst hit by this tsunami, which swamped the northern and western coastal areas of Sumatra, and the smaller outlying islands of Sumatra. However, nearly all the casualties and damage took place on the province of Aceh, Indonesia, where three devastating earthquakes struck the western shore in succession within 30 minutes. Each of these waves ranged from 4 to 39 metres high and due to the relatively flat ground of the region, extended inland for as far as 250 kilometres, subsequently affecting a large portion of Indonesia of up to an estimated 300,000 people, while also destroying 250 coastal communities in Indonesia with its rampant movement.

7. Residential neighbourhoods and fishing villages in coastal areas of Indonesia were entirely devastated, and houses were swept inland or out to sea. While the traditional construction of the buildings was able to resist the shaking from the underwater earthquake, they could not resist the continuous forces from the onslaught of tsunamis, meaning most were completely obliterated.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) What are one of the major threats in Indonesia?

(b) Indonesia’s prosperity suffers because of _____________ .

(i)man-made calamities

(ii)natural calamities

(iii)pollution

(iv)deforestation

(c) What does Indonesia practise to resist and shield themselves from the earthquakes?

(d) The table points out which city recorded the highest number of casualties.

(i)Java

(ii)Sumatra

(iii)Province of Aceh

(iv)both (i) and (ii)

(e) The table shows two cities which had the same magnitude of earthquake on Richter scale but different number of casualties. The difference in casualty was _____________ .

(i)295

(ii)387

(iii)682

(iv)730

(f) What has been identified about a large tsunami on average?

(g) Complete the sentence appropriately.

The existing infrastructure and agriculture of Indonesia are unable to be saved because _____________________ .

(h) State TRUE or FALSE.

An earthquake always results in mass displacement of the water surrounding.

Answer

(a) Earthquakes are one of the major threats from moving plate tectonics in Indonesia because they come suddenly and strike the cities which are densely populated. It comes almost on a daily basis with a magnitude of 5 or 6.

(b) (ii) natural calamities

(d) (ii) Sumatra

(e) (i) 295

(f) It has been identified that a large tsunami reaches areas of Indonesia every five years and hit the cities of Java and Sumatra most. Evacuations are also made in time in tsunami prone areas.

(g) tsunamis often devastate the Indonesian economy.

(h) True

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Question 1010 Marks

1. Work on four major road infrastructure projects planned as part of a ₹50,000 crore plan to decongest Delhi and curb vehicular pollution will begin this year. The new road links will not only reduce the traffic load on arterial roads such as Ring Road but also make it easier to travel between various zones of the city.
2. The four projects, announced in the run-up to the 2019 general elections, are National Highway 709B (Akshardham to Eastern Peripheral Expressway to Saharanpur bypass), Delhi‑Noida Direct Flyway to KMP interchange via Kalindi Kunj bypass (part of Delhi-Mumbai expressway), Urban Extension Road (UER)-II and Dwarka Expressway.
3. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), which is executing the four projects, said while work on some has already begun, on others it will start this year.
4. Of the four projects, UER-II and Kalindi Kunj bypass were planned by the Delhi Development Authority and the Delhi government’s Public Works Department decades ago. But they got stuck due to technical and land acquisition related issues, said senior DDA and PWD officials.
5. The 31.1 km corridor between Akshardham and EPE, part of national highway 709B, will start from Akshardham flyover and pass through densely populated areas such as Geeta Colony, Shastri Park, Khajuri Khas, etc. Of the 31.1 km, 14.7 km will be in Delhi and the entire stretch will be elevated, officials said.
6. Though tenders for the project were floated in January 2019, the project got delayed as the ministry of road transport and highways asked NHAI to reassess the financial viability of the project and explore options to bring down the cost.
7. After the evaluation, the total cost of the project has been revised to ₹2,388 crore from the earlier estimate of ₹2,820 crore. A senior NHAI official said, “We have opened the financial bids for the project. The work on the 31.1 km stretch will be done in two packages. Based on the financial bids, we have declared the contractors for the two packages. The work will be awarded soon.”
8. The official added, “The work should start soon. Some clearances such as environment, fire, setting up a temporary bitumen plant, etc. has to be taken.”
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) Why did the projects of (UER)-II and Kalindi Kunj bypass planned by the Delhi Development Authority and the Delhi government’s Public Works Department get stuck?
(b) The work on the 31.1 km stretch will be done in _____________ .
(i)5 packages
(ii)2 packages
(iii)6 packages
(iv)7 packages
(c) What has happened after the evaluation?
(d) The projects are planned as part of a
(i)₹20,000 crore plan
(ii)₹50,000 crore plan
(iii)₹30,000 crore plan
(iv)₹40,000 crore plan
(e) The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is executing __________ projects.
(i)two
(ii)three
(iii)four
(iv)five
(f) What did a senior NHAI official say after the evaluation?
(g) Complete the sentence appropriately.
Though tenders for the project were floated in January 2019, the project got delayed because the ministry of Road Transport and Highways asked NHAI to _____________.
(h) State TRUE or FALSE.
Delhi Development Authority has executed four projects.

Answer

(a) The projects of (UER)-II and Kalindi Kunj bypass planned by the Delhi Development Authority got stuck due to technical and land acquisition related issues. It is really a matter of concern.

(b) (ii) 2 packages

(c) After the evaluation, the total cost of the project has been revised to ₹2,388 crore from the earlier estimate of ₹2,820 crore.

(d) (ii) ₹50,000 crore plan

(e) (iii) four

(f) After the evaluation, a senior NHAI official said that the financial bids for the project have been opened up. The work on the 31.1 km stretch will be done in two packages. The contractors for he two packages have been declared. And the work will be awarded soon.

(g) reassess the financial viability of the project and explore options to bring down the cost.

(h) False

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Question 1110 Marks

Read the passage given below.

1. Though the municipal corporations have been entrusted with the responsibility of removing encroachments across the city, an internal report shows that about 70 acres of land in 964 parks, which are run by the civic bodies themselves, have been taken over by squatters.

2. The worst affected civic body is North Delhi Municipal Corporation where 461 parks with a cumulative area of 32.6 acres are encroached upon. It is followed by East Delhi Municipal Corporation, where 221 parks with an area of 29.4 acres are overrun by squatters. The report added that North Corporation was able to remove encroachments in only five parks.

3. Out of the 6,802 parks run by South Delhi Municipal Corporation, 7.24 acres of 282 such green areas are encroached upon. The three municipal corporations cumulatively manage 14,851 of the 16,299 parks in Delhi. While the North Corporation has 5,944 parks under its jurisdiction, East Delhi Municipal Corporation runs 2,105.

https://pg-data.sgp1.digitaloceanspaces.com/chapter_wise/18364/q2.png" alt="Image" width="550" height="" />

4. A comparison of the 12 administrative zones has revealed that the maximum scale of encroachment was in Shahdara (South), where 27.7 acres were encroached upon in 187 parks. This was followed by Rohini zone in which 21.7 acres in 240 parks had been taken over by squatters. These two zones alone account for over 70% of the encroachments.

5. The report states that the encroachments are both religious and non-religious in nature. “There are encroachments in the shape of jhuggies, houses, temporary structures, chabutra, transformers, boundary walls and car parking. Concerted efforts should be made to free the land from encroachments. The non-removal of encroachments from municipal land and parks valued at crore of rupees is a major irregularity,” it added.

6. A senior official said the matter was being taken up at various forums and some encroachments like religious structures could only be removed after approval from the religious committee headed by the lieutenant governor. Another official said many such cases were pending in courts or with the special task force.

7. Section 498 of Delhi Municipal Corporation Act mandates that “no person can remove earth, sand or other material or deposit any matter or make any encroachment on any land vested in the corporations or in any way obstruct the same.”

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) Do you think the encroachments have been done everywhere in Delhi? What should be done to get them free?

(b) An internal report shows that about _____________ of land in 964 parks has been taken over by squatters.

(i)50 acres

(ii)60 acres

(iii)70 acres

(iv)80 acres

(d) The issue of non-removal of encroachments from municipal land is a major _____________ .

(i)irregularity

(ii)an uphill task

(iii)risky job

(iv)challenge

(e) Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.

In Shahdara (South) 277 acres were encroached upon in _____________ parks.

(i)139

(ii)156

(iii)187

(iv)193

(f) What does Section 498 of Delhi Municipal Corporation Act mandate?

(g) Complete the sentence appropriately.

Concerted efforts should be made to free the land so that ________________.

(h) State TRUE or FALSE

In the matter of encroachment, North Delhi Municipal corporation is the wrong affected civil body.

Answer

(a) Yes, encroachments have been done everywhere. These are in the shape of jhuggies, houses, temporary structures, chabutra, transformers, boundary walls and car parking. Concerted efforts should also be made to free the land from encroachments.

(b) (iii) 70 acres

(d) (i) irregularity

(e) (iii) 187

(f) Section 498 of Delhi Municipal Corporation Act mandates that no person can remove earth, land or other material or deposit any matter, or make any encroachment on any land vested in the corporations or in any way obstruct the same.

(g) no encroachments should be done by public, any agency or authority.

(h) Yes

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Question 1210 Marks

1. What’s up with WhatsApp, specifically its newish payments business? Contrary to the expectations of many market observers, WhatsApp has processed just 1.6 million of the over 6.7 billion transactions on India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) since its launch in November.

2. WhatsApp insiders said this was part of its strategy. “We are in it for the long haul; it’s a marathon, not a sprint and we are in no hurry and want to get this piece right,” a person close to the company told The Economic Times, requesting anonymity. “To get the simplicity of WhatsApp’s interface for payments is a complex task. We want to ensure that the experience for customers is smooth.”

Transaction Volumes on UPI in Million

WhatsAppPhonePeGooglePaytmAmazonUPI (Total)January0.56968853281462,302December0.81902854261412,230November0.31868960260372,200

3. Market observers said the challenge of India’s sophisticated payments architecture, a raging political debate around ownership of digital data, coupled with the social messenger’s global experiences such as in Brazil could be the reasons. Within a few days of WhatsApp’s payment service going live, the Central Bank of Brazil had taken it down owing to an uncertain regulatory climate.

4. A WhatsApp spokesperson confirmed the development. “That’s correct,” the spokesperson said, responding to ET’s mailed query on whether the slow start was a conscious decision to enhance customer experience before gaining scale.

5. As per the latest data released by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), WhatsApp Pay processed just 0.56 million transactions worth https://gowebrachnasagar.com/tg/schoolquestionimages/rupee.png" alt="" width="7" height="11" />36.44 crore in January 2021 against 0.81 million transactions worth https://gowebrachnasagar.com/tg/schoolquestionimages/rupee.png" alt="" width="7" height="11" />29.72 crore it recorded in December 2020.

6. At the same time, the NPCl-run UPI yet again clocked record volumes processing 2.3 billion transactions worth https://gowebrachnasagar.com/tg/schoolquestionimages/rupee.png" alt="" width="7" height="11" />4.3 lakh crore in the month, cementing its credential as one of the fastest-growing retail payment channels in the world.

7. “We have knowingly gone slow with onboardings and are working on building the right technology and teams to emerge as an important player in enabling India’s digital ecosystem,” the person close to WhatsApp quoted above said, adding: “If we want, we can be a much larger player in the market; we haven’t started any marketing at all.”

8. Walmart-backed PhonePe, Google Pay, Paytm that is funded by SoftBank and Ant Financial, and Amazon Pay cornered a significantly higher share of transactions in this period. PhonePe clocked 968 million transactions in January, whereas Google Pay processed 853 million payments. Paytm came a distant third with 281 million payments on UPI, whereas Amazon Pay did 46 million.

9. “WhatsApp wants to get the payments absolutely right in India because it ties together all its long‑term ambitions for growth in the country,” said a chief executive of a domestic payments company, speaking off the record.

10. Experts also pointed that WhatsApp’s bid to capture the digital payments market in India has also not been sufficiently focused on the technology and talent acquisition front.

[Courtesy: The Economic Times]

Based on your reading of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) What did the market observers say about the challenge of WhatsApp’s payment?

(b) Within a few days of WhatsApp’s payment services going live, the Central Bank of Brazil had taken it down owing to an _____________ .

(i)unfavourable climate

(ii)uncertain regulatory climate

(iii)unforeseen contingency

(iv)ecological problem

(c) WhatsApp’s bid to capture the digital payments market in India has not been sufficiently focused. Write on which front could it not focus on?

(d) According to the chart, Walmart-backed PhonePe clocked 968 million transactions where Google pay processed _____________ .

(i)753 million payments

(ii)853 million payments

(iii)789 million payments

(iv)700 million payments

(e) NPCI-run UPI cemented its credential by processing 2.3 billion transactions worth;₹4.3 lakh crore as one of the _____________ .

(i)fastest-growing retail payment channels in the world

(ii)slowest-growing payment channels

(iii)largest retail payment channels

(iv)busiest-growing payment channels in the world

(f) What did the chief executive say about the domestic payments company of WhatsApp?

(g) Complete the sentence appropriately based on the following statement.

According to the passage, WhatsApp wants to get the payments absolutely right in India.

We can say this because____________.

(h) State TRUE or FALSE.

According to the latest data of NPCI, WhatsApp pay processed just 0.28 million transactions worth 36.24 crore in January against 0.81 million transactions.

Answer

(a) Market observers said that the challenge of India’s sophisticated payments architecture, a raging political debate around ownership of digital data, coupled with the social messenger’s global experiences.

(b) (ii) uncertain regulatory climate

(d) (ii) 853 million payments

(e) (i) fastest-growing retail payment channels in the world

(f) The chief executive said WhatsApp wants to get the payments absolutely right in India because it ties together all its ambitions for growth in the country. It has also not been able to capture the digital payments market.

(g) it ties together all it’s long-term ambitions for growth in the country.

(h) False

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Question 1310 Marks

1. Over the last five years, more companies have been actively looking for intern profiles, according to a 2018-19 survey by an online internship and training platform. This survey reveals that India had 80% more internship applications — with 2.2 million applications received in 2018 compared to 1.27 million in the year before. The trend was partly due to more industries looking to have fresh minds and ideas on existing projects for better productivity. What was originally seen as a western concept, getting an internship before plunging into the job market, is fast gaining momentum at Indian workplaces.

2. According to the survey data, India’s National Capital Region has been the top provider of internships, with a total of 35% internship opportunities, followed by Mumbai and Bengaluru at 20% and 15%, respectively. This includes opportunities in startups, MNCs and even government entities. The survey also revealed popular fields to find internships in the figure. There has been growing awareness among the students about the intern profiles sought by hiring companies that often look for people with real-time experience in management than B- school masters.

https://pg-data.sgp1.digitaloceanspaces.com/chapter_wise/18364/q1.png" alt="Image" width="450" height="" />3. The stipend has been an important factor influencing the choice of internships. The survey data reveals that the average stipend offered to interns was recorded as https://gowebrachnasagar.com/tg/schoolquestionimages/rupee.png" alt="" width="7" height="11" />7000 while the maximum stipend went up to https://gowebrachnasagar.com/tg/schoolquestionimages/rupee.png" alt="" width="7" height="11" />85,000. According to statistics, a greater number of people considered virtual internships than in-office internships. Virtual internships got three times more applications than in-office, since a large chunk of students were the ones already enrolled in various courses, or preferred working from home.
4. Internship portals have sprung up in the last three to four years and many of them already report healthy traffic per month. Reports suggest that on an average, an internship portal company has around 200,000-plus students and some 8,000 companies registered on it. It gets around two lakh visits online every month. The Managing Director of a leading executive search firm says that though these web platforms are working as an effective bridge between the industry and students, most established companies are still reluctant to take too many interns on board for obvious reasons.
Source: (1) https://www.businessinsider.in/internships-in-india-on-the-rise-with-startups-leading- the- way/articleshow/67655265.cms
(2)https://www.businesstoday.in/magazine/features/story/online-portals-helping-college-students-paid-in...
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) Do you think the stipend has been an important factor that influences the choice of internships?

Support your answer with reference to the text.

(b) Select the option that displays the true statement with reference to the figure.

(i)Internships for Engineering and Management are the top two favourites.

(ii)Design & Architecture internships are significantly more popular than others.

(iii)Internships for Media and Others have nearly equal popularity percentage.

(iv)Management internships’ popularity is more than twice that for Media.

(d) Select the correct inference with reference to the following:

Over the last five years, more companies have been actively looking for intern profiles…

(i)the past five years have seen active applications by interns to several companies.

(ii)the activity for intern profiling by the companies has reached a gradual downslide over the past five years.

(iii)there were lesser companies searching for intern profiles earlier, as compared to those in the recent five years.

(iv)several companies have initiated intern profiling five times a year in the recent past.

(e) Select the option that displays the correct cause-effect relationship.

(i)CauseEffect Several students had academic courses to complete.Students applied for online internship.

(ii)CauseEffect A large chunk of students preferred in-office internships.Applications were three times more than for virtual internships.
(iii)CauseEffect A greater number of students wanted to work from home.Several students had courses to complete.

(iv)CauseEffect Students applied for online internship.An equal number of students applied for work from home.

(f) What is the opinion of the Managing Director of a leading company about web platforms?

(g) Complete the sentence appropriately based on the following statement.

According to the survey data, India’s National Capital Region has been the top provider of internships.

We can say this because______________

(h) State True or False.

India’s National Capital Region has been the top provider of internships.

Answer

(a) Yes, the stipend has been an important factor that influences the choice of internships because the average stipend offers to interns was recorded at ₹7000 while the maximum stipend went up to

₹85,000.

(b) (iv) Management internships’ popularity is more than twice that for Media.

(d) (iii) there were lesser companies searching for intern profiles earlier, as compared to those in the recent five years.

(e)(i)

(f) The web platforms are working as an effective bridge between the industry and students, but most established companies are still reluctant to take too many interns on boards.

(g) there has been growing awareness among the students about internships.

(h) True

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Question 1410 Marks

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(a) Do you think the encroachments have been done everywhere in Delhi? What should be done to get them free?

(b) An internal report shows that about _____________ of land in 964 parks has been taken over by squatters.

(i)50 acres

(ii)60 acres

(iii)70 acres

(iv)80 acres

(c) What is a major irregularity?

(d) The issue of non-removal of encroachments from municipal land is a major _____________ .

(i)irregularity

(ii)an uphill task

(iii)risky job

(iv)challenge

(e) Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.

In Shahdara (South) 277 acres were encroached upon in _____________ parks.

(i)139

(ii)156

(iii)187

(iv)193

(f) What does Section 498 of Delhi Municipal Corporation Act mandate?

(g) Complete the sentence appropriately.

Concerted efforts should be made to free the land so that ________________.

(h) State TRUE or FALSE

In the matter of encroachment, North Delhi Municipal corporation is the wrong affected civil body.

Answer

(b) (iii) 70 acres

(d) (i) irregularity

(e) (iii) 187

(g) no encroachments should be done by public, any agency or authority.

(h) Yes

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English Core Read The Following Text.(10M)

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