Question 12 Marks
If $6$ oil tankers can be filled by a pipe in $4\frac{1}{2}\text{ hours}$, how long does the pipe take to fill $4$ such oil tankers?
Answer
View full question & answer→Time taken by $6$ oil tankers to be filled by a pipe = $4\frac{1}{2}\text{ hours}=\frac{9}{2}\text{ hours}$
Time taken by $1$ oil tankers to be filled by a pipe = $\frac{\frac{9}{2}}{6}\text{ hours}$
Hence, the time taken by $4$ oil tankers to be filled by a pipe $\frac{9}{12}\times4\ \text{hours}= 3\ \text{hours}$
Time taken by $1$ oil tankers to be filled by a pipe = $\frac{\frac{9}{2}}{6}\text{ hours}$
Hence, the time taken by $4$ oil tankers to be filled by a pipe $\frac{9}{12}\times4\ \text{hours}= 3\ \text{hours}$