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SECTION - A [BOTANY - MCQ]

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45 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 14 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ligaments are dense regular connective tissue.
Statement II: Cartilage is specialised dense regular Connective tissue.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
  • A
    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • B
    Both Statement I and II are true
  • C
    Both Statement I and II are false
  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Answer
Correct option: D.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D)
Ligaments are dense regular connective tissue that connect bone to bone. Cartilage is one of the types of specialised connective tissues.
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MCQ 24 Marks
Match List-I with List-II.
List-IList-II
(A) Flat worms(I) Nephridia
(B) Paramoecium(II) Contractile vacuole
(C) Periplaneta(III) Protonephridia
(D) Earth worms(IV) Urecose gland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • B
    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C
    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer
Correct option: D.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(D)
Flatworms (e.g., Taenia) have excretory systems called protonephridia with flame cells.
Freshwater Paramoecium have osmoregulatory organelle called contractile vacuole. Urecose glands in Cockroaches (Periplaneta) helps in excretion. In earthworms (Pheretima), the excretory organs are nephridia.
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MCQ 34 Marks
Adults of which phyllum shows radial symmetry
  • A
    Coelenterates
  • B
    Stenophores
  • C
    Hemichordates
  • Both (1) and (2)
Answer
Correct option: D.
Both (1) and (2)
(D)
Radial symmetry: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves.
Bilateral symmetry: When the body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane.
The adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.
Coelenterates and Ctenophores are radially symmetrical animals.
Hemichordates are bilaterally symmetrical animals.
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MCQ 44 Marks
Math List-l with List-ll
List-IList-II
(A) Mutualism(I) One species benefit and other is neutral
(B) Commensalism(II) One species is harmed and other is unaffected
(C) Amensalism(III) One species benefit and other is harmed.
(D) Calvin Cycle(IV) Benefit on both the interacting species.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • B
    A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • D
    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer
Correct option: C.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(C)
Mutualism: This interaction confers benefits on both the interacting species.
Commensalism: This is the interaction in which one species benefit (+) and other in neutral (o).
Amensalism: In this interaction one species is harmed (-) whereas the other in unaffected (o).
Parasitism: In this interaction one species benefit (+) and other is harmed (-).
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MCQ 54 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusive Principle' states that two closely related species Competing for the Same resources can co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
Statement II: In general, herbivores are affected by competition than Carnivores more adversely.
Choose the correct answer from option the given below:
  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D
    Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(A)
Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. In general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.
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MCQ 64 Marks
All these steps are involved in formation of recombinent DNA except:
A. Coating of DNA fragments using PCR.
B. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.
C. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.
D. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
E. Modification of gene of interest using PCR.
  • A
    A and B
  • B
    A and C
  • C
    A and D
  • A and E
Answer
Correct option: D.
A and E
(D)
Main steps in the formation of recombinant DNA in correct sequence are:
B: Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.
C: Isolation of desired DNA fragment by electrophoresis.
D: Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
A: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.
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MCQ 74 Marks
The Cellular factory responsible for Synthesis of porotein
  • A
    Mitochondria
  • B
    SER
  • Ribosome
  • D
    Both (1) and (3)
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ribosome
(C)
The cellular factory responsible for synthesising proteins is the ribosome. The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins.
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MCQ 84 Marks
Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual has overall musculine developement.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are hyperactive and Causes Sexual Crime.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A and E only
  • B
    C and D only
  • C
    A and B only
  • B and C only
Answer
Correct option: D.
B and C only
(D)
Klinefelter's Syndrome is a genetic disorder that also caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY. Such an individual has overall masculine development, however, the feminine development (development of breast, i.e., Gynaecomastia) is also expressed. Such individuals are sterile.
Down syndrome was first described by Langdon down (1866). In this disorder affected individual is physically, psychomotorly and mentally retarded.
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MCQ 94 Marks
Math List-l with List-ll
List- IList- II
(A) Primary $CO _2$ acceptor(I) RuBP
(B) Photo System I (PSI)(II) PEP
(C) Light harvesting complex phosphorylation(III) Antennae
(D) Calvin Cycle(IV) 700 nm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B
    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C
    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • D
    A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer
Correct option: A.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
A
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MCQ 104 Marks
ATP Synthase has a channel that allows diffusion of ____________ back across the membrane
  • A
    poroton
  • B
    $H ^{+}$
  • C
    ATP
  • Both (1) and (2)
Answer
Correct option: D.
Both (1) and (2)
(D)
Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump, a proton gradient and ATP synthase. Energy is used to pump protons across a membrane, to create a gradient or a high concentration of protons within the thylakoid lumen. ATP synthase has a channel that allows diffusion of protons back across the membrane; this releases enough energy to activate ATP synthase enzyme that catalyses the formation of ATP.
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MCQ 114 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll
List-lList-II
(A) M Phase(I) Proteins are synthesized in preparation for mitosis
(B) $G _2$ Phase(II) Cell do not divide further
(C) $G _0$ Phase(III) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(D) $G _1$ Phase(IV) Most dramatic period
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • B
    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • C
    A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer
Correct option: D.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(D)
M phase is most dramatic period of cell cycle also called equational division.
$G _2$ phase: Proteins are synthesized in preparation for mitosis.
Quiescent stage: cell do not divide further exit $G _1$ phase to enter an inactive state.
$G _1$ phase: This phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
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MCQ 124 Marks
Inhibition of Saccinic dehydrogenase by malonate is example of-
  • A
    Uncompetitive inhibition
  • Competitive inhibition
  • C
    Non competitive inhibition
  • D
    All of these
Answer
Correct option: B.
Competitive inhibition
(B)
The competitive inhibitor competes with the substrate for the substrate binding site of the enzyme. Consequently, the substrate cannot bind and as a result, the enzyme action declines, e.g. inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate which closely resembles the substrate succinate in structure. Such competitive inhibitors are ofter used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
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MCQ 134 Marks
Identify the correctly matched pair.
  • A
    Ectocarpus - Green algae
  • Porphyra - Red algae
  • C
    Laminaria - Red algae
  • D
    Polysiphonia - Brown algae
Answer
Correct option: B.
Porphyra - Red algae
(B)
Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria and Gelidium are examples of red algae. Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and Fucus are examples of brown algae.
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MCQ 144 Marks
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R:
Assertion A: A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason R: Meristematic tissue Called Cork Cambium or phellogen develops, usually in the Cortex region.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A is false but R is true.
  • B
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • D
    A is true but R is false.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C)
A flower is a modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem. Internodes do not elongate and the axis gets condensed. The apex produces different kinds of floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.
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MCQ 154 Marks
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents.
Reason R: The pollen tube carrying the male gametes grows towards orchegonia in the ovules and discharge their contents near the mouth of archegonia.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A is false but R is true.
  • B
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • D
    A is true but R is false.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C)
In gymnosperms, the pollen grain is released from the microsporangium. They are carried in air currents and come in contact with the opening of the ovules borne on megasporophylls. The pollen tube carrying the male gametes grows towards archegonia in the ovules and discharge their contents near the mouth of the archegonia.
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MCQ 164 Marks
Identify Correct statements:
A. "The Evil Quartet' is the four major causes of biodiversity loses.
B. Allen species invasion is one of the major cause of biodiversity lose.
C. Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause of biodiversity loss.
  • A
    A & B only
  • B
    A & C only
  • C
    B & C only
  • A, B, C all
Answer
Correct option: D.
A, B, C all
(D)
There are four major causes of biodiversity losses (The Evil Quartet) that are habitat loss and fragmentation, overexploitation, Alien species invasion and co-extinctions. Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
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MCQ 174 Marks
The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, was held in Rio de Janeiro in
  • A
    The world Summit, 1992
  • B
    The world Summit, 1985
  • C
    The Earth Summit, 1991
  • The Earth Summit, 1992
Answer
Correct option: D.
The Earth Summit, 1992
(D)
The historic Convention on Biological Diversity ('The Earth Summit') held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits.
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MCQ 184 Marks
In the equation GPP-R NPP, GPP is Gross Primary Productivity, R is respiratory loss NPP here is
  • A
    Nutrient primary productivity
  • B
    Nutrient primary producer
  • Net primary productivity
  • D
    Net primary producer
Answer
Correct option: C.
Net primary productivity
(C)
Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP)
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MCQ 194 Marks
Identify the incorrect statements:
A. Detrivores perform fragmentation on live material in ecosystem.
B. The humus is dark nutrient rich substance degraded by microorganism.
C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching.
D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms.
E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • D, E, A only
  • B
    A, B, C only
  • C
    B, C, D onlv
  • D
    C, D, E only
Answer
Correct option: A.
D, E, A only
(A)
Detritus food chain (DFC) begins with detritus or dead organic matter. Detrivores (eg. Earthworm, millipeds, slugs) perform fragmentation process on dead decaying material in any ecosystem. Humus a dark nutrient rich substance is degraded by microorganisms releasing inorganic nutrients into the soil. This process is known as mineralization. By the process leaching, water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
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MCQ 204 Marks
Addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out ____________, dusing the purification process for recombinent technalogy
  • A
    Monosaccharide
  • B
    mRNA
  • DNA
  • D
    Proteins
Answer
Correct option: C.
DNA
(C)
Addition of chilled ethanol precipitates the genomic DNA during the isolation of DNA or genetic material.
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MCQ 214 Marks
In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of gold or tungsten metal are used in...
  • Plants
  • B
    Mycoplasma
  • C
    Mammals
  • D
    All of these
Answer
Correct option: A.
Plants
(A)
A biolistic or gene gun is a technique of genetic engineering where the genes, DNA, RNA or proteins are transferred to the plant cells without the use of any vectors. The genetic material is coated with heavy metal i.e. gold or tungsten bombarded with the heavy velocity.
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MCQ 224 Marks
Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be seen when:
  • A
    Stained with ethyl bromide and exposed to UV rays
  • B
    Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to normal ligt
  • C
    Stained with ethyl bromide and exposed to x-rays
  • Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV rays.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV rays.
(D)
In gel electrophoresis the separated DNA fragments can be visualized only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation. Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be seen when stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV light.
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MCQ 234 Marks
Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by
  • A
    Alfred Hershey and Martha chase (1944)
  • B
    Fedrick Griffith (1931)
  • Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952)
  • D
    Fedrick Griffith (1922)
Answer
Correct option: C.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952)
(C)
The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952). They worked with viruse that inject bacteria called bacteriophages.
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MCQ 244 Marks
All the genes that are expressed as RNA are referred as
  • A
    Polymerised genes
  • Expressed sequence tags (EST)
  • C
    Mutated ganes
  • D
    All of these
Answer
Correct option: B.
Expressed sequence tags (EST)
(B)
All the genes that are expressed as RNA are referred to as Expressed sequence Tags (EST) are focussed on identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA.
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MCQ 254 Marks
What is the role of RNA polymerase I in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
  • A
    Transcription of only snRNAS
  • Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
  • C
    Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA
  • D
    Transcription of precursor of mRNA
Answer
Correct option: B.
Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(B)
In eukaryotes, The RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S), whereas the RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs). The RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)
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MCQ 264 Marks
The term linkage to describe physical association of genes on a chromosome is coined by-
  • A
    Henking
  • Thomas Hunt Morgan
  • C
    Sutton and Boveri
  • D
    Alfred Sturtevant
Answer
Correct option: B.
Thomas Hunt Morgan
B
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MCQ 274 Marks
A single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression, this phenomenon is known as
  • A
    Concept of dominence
  • B
    Co dominence
  • C
    Multiple allelism
  • Pleiotropism
Answer
Correct option: D.
Pleiotropism
(D)
Generally effect of a gene can be seen on a single phenotype of a trait. However, there are instances where a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotype expression. Such a gene is called a pleiotropic gene.
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MCQ 284 Marks
The tessels in the corn cob represents-
  • A
    Calyx and corolla both
  • Stigma and style both
  • C
    Only calyx
  • D
    Only stigma
Answer
Correct option: B.
Stigma and style both
(B)
Wind pollinated flower eg. Zea mays (maize) have nonessential whorls such as calyx, corolla, bracts and bracteoles are not showy. Flowers are devoid of scent and nectar. The tessels represent the stigma and style. Pollen grains are dry, very small sized, non-sticky and unwettable, so that they can be carried by wind to the long distances. Stigma is hairy, feathery that catches the wind borne pollens.
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MCQ 294 Marks
Synergids, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus (The haploid diploid and triploid structure) of a fertilized embryo sac are sequentially in
  • A
    Gymnosperm
  • Angiosperm
  • C
    Fungi
  • D
    All of these
Answer
Correct option: B.
Angiosperm
(B)
In angiosperms, the haploid diploid and triploid structure of a fertilised embryo sac sequentially are- Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
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MCQ 304 Marks
In insect pollinated plants, which type of flowers are seen
  • A
    Large, Colourless, fragrant
  • B
    Small, Colourful, fragrant
  • Large, Colourful, fragrant
  • D
    Small, Colourful, fragrant
Answer
Correct option: C.
Large, Colourful, fragrant
(C)
Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colorful, fragrant flowers and rich in nectar. These characteristics off were attract insect and thus help in pollination.
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MCQ 314 Marks
Which hormone Cause fruits like apple to elongate and improve its shape
  • A
    2,4-D
  • Gibberellins
  • C
    Kinetin
  • D
    Ethylene
Answer
Correct option: B.
Gibberellins
B
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MCQ 324 Marks
What do you mean by the term dedifferentiation?
  • A
    Cells undergo few to major structural changes both in their cell walls and protoplasm.
  • B
    Environmental signals such as light and gravity also affect certain phases of dedifferentiation.
  • Cells, that by now have lost the capacity to divide can regain the capacity of division under certain contidition.
  • D
    Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called dedifferentiation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cells, that by now have lost the capacity to divide can regain the capacity of division under certain contidition.
(C)
The living differentiated cells, that by now have lost the capacity to divide can regain the capacity of division under certain conditions. This phenomenon is termed as dedifferentiation. Same occurs in tissue culture of leaf.
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MCQ 334 Marks
Read the given statement carefully and choose the correct option-
  • A
    ABA stimulates the closure of stroma and decreases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.
  • B
    Ethephon actually promotes female flowers in cucumbers, thereby increasing the yield.
  • C
    $GA _2$ is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry.
  • Spraying juvenile conifers with GAs hasten the maturity period, thus leading to early seed production.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Spraying juvenile conifers with GAs hasten the maturity period, thus leading to early seed production.
(D)
Spraying of gibberellins on juvenile conifers, hastens the maturity period and thus leading to early seed production.
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MCQ 344 Marks
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason R: First ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1, 6 disphosphate and second is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
  • A
    A is false but R is true.
  • B
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C
    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • A is true but R is false.
Answer
Correct option: D.
A is true but R is false.
(D)
ATP is utilised at two steps: first in the conversion of glucose into glucose 6-phosphate and second in the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate.
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MCQ 354 Marks
Which reaction centre has an absorption peak at 700 nm
  • A
    PSI, hence is Called P680
  • B
    PSII, hence is Called P700
  • PSI, hence is called P700
  • D
    PSII, hence is called P680
Answer
Correct option: C.
PSI, hence is called P700
(C)
In PS I the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorptionpeak at 700 nm , hence is called $P _{700}$, while in PS II it has absorptionmaxima at 680 nm , and is called $P_{880}$.
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MCQ 364 Marks
By the the use of 36 ATP and 24 NADPH, how many moles of glucose synthesized during calvin cycle:
  • A
    1 mole
  • 2 mole
  • C
    3 mole
  • D
    4 mole
Answer
Correct option: B.
2 mole
(B)
In one calvin cycle
InOut
Six $CO _2$One glucose
18 ATP18 ADP
12 NADPH12 NADP
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MCQ 374 Marks
Pachytene is the stage-
  • Characterised by the appearance of recombination nodule
  • B
    Chromosomes start pairing togather
  • C
    Compaction of chromosome occurs
  • D
    Dissolution of synaptonemal Complex occurs
Answer
Correct option: A.
Characterised by the appearance of recombination nodule
(A)
The first two stages of prophase I are relatively shortlived compared to the next stage that is pachytene. During this stage the four chromatids of each bivalent chromosomes became distinct and clearly appears as tetrads. This stage is characterized by the appearance of recombination nodules, the site at which crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes.
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MCQ 384 Marks
Anaphase II stage of meiosis involves-
  • A
    Duplication of chromosome
  • Division of centromere.
  • C
    Chromatids attached to same pole
  • D
    Both 1 & 3 are correct
Answer
Correct option: B.
Division of centromere.
(B)
Anaphase stage is characterised by the following key events:
1. Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
2. Chromatids move to opposite poles.
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MCQ 394 Marks
S phase or synthesis phase marks the period during which-
  • A
    DNA synthesis takes place
  • B
    Cell is metabolically active
  • C
    There is no increase in the chromosome number
  • More than one option is correct
Answer
Correct option: D.
More than one option is correct
(D)
In eukaryotes, S or Synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place. During this phase the amount of DNA per cell doubles.
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MCQ 404 Marks
Choose the most appropriate option with respect to starch and cellulose-
  • A
    Both starch and cellulose are branched polymer.
  • B
    Both Starch and Cellulose are linear polymer.
  • C
    Cellulose is branched polymer but starch is linear polymer.
  • Starch is branched polymer but cellulose is linear polymer.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Starch is branched polymer but cellulose is linear polymer.
(D)
Both starch and cellulose are made of glucose molecules, but the difference between them is that starch is branched polymer while cellulose is a linear polymer. Starch also forms helical secondary structures, so it can hold $I _2$ molecules in the helical portion. The Starch$I _2$ is blue colour. Cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold $I _2$.
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MCQ 414 Marks
Among these which pair of organisms belong to the same genus?
  • A
    Lion and cats
  • Potato and brinjal
  • C
    Mango and wheat
  • D
    House fly and man
Answer
Correct option: B.
Potato and brinjal
(B)
Potato and brinjal are two different species but both belong to the genus Solanum. Lion (Panthera leo), leopard (P. pardus) and tiger (P. tigris) with several common features, are all species of the genus Panthera. This genus differs from another genus Felis which includes cats.
Common NameBiological NameGenusFamilyOrderClassPhylum/Division
ManHomo sapiensHomoHominidaePrimataMammaliaChordata
HouseflyMusca cdomesticaMuscaMuscidaeDipteraInsectaArthropoda
MangoMangifera indicaMangiferaAnacardiaccacSapindalesDicotyledonneAngiospermac
WheatTriticum aestivumTriticumPoaceaePoalesMonocotyledonneAngiospermae
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MCQ 424 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of primary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II: Endarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(D)
In roots, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre. Such arrangement of primary xylem is called exarch. Endarch and exarch xylem are the terms used for primary xylem.
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MCQ 434 Marks
Type of placentation observed in china rose, petunia and lemon
  • A
    Marginal
  • Axile
  • C
    Parietal
  • D
    Basal
Answer
Correct option: B.
Axile
(B)
In axile placentation ovules are attached to multilocular ovary as in china rose, petunia and lemon.
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MCQ 444 Marks
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are-
  • A
    Homosporous
  • Heterosporous
  • C
    megasporous
  • D
    more than one option it correct
Answer
Correct option: B.
Heterosporous
(B)
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia which produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small) spores, are known as heterosporous.
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MCQ 454 Marks
Given below are two statements:One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R: Protonema develops indirectly from spores produced in capsule.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A is not correct but R is correct
  • B
    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C
    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • A is correct but R is not correct.
Answer
Correct option: D.
A is correct but R is not correct.
(D)
Mosses spores released from the capsule germinate to form the filamentous structure called protonema. It is the first stage of gametophyte.
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