Question 13 Marks
"Write ampere's circuital law. In a long straight wire of cross-sectional cut (radius a), a direct current is flowing in the wire. Current is uniformly distributed in the wire. Calculate the magnetic field in inner surface of the wire ( $r
Answer
View full question & answer→According to Ampere's law, the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed path is equal to the product of magnetic permeability of that space and the algebraic sum of the current passing through that closed path in vacuum or air.
In mathematical form,
$ \oint \overrightarrow{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\mu_0 \Sigma I $
where, $\mu_0=$ magnetic permeability of vacuum and $\oint \overrightarrow{ B } \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=$ is known as line integral of magnetic field $(\overrightarrow{ B })$.
We need to calculate the magnetic field at $r<a$ and for this ampere loop is that circle on which I is marked. On taking radius of the circle to be r for this loop,

Now here, the electric current associated is not I but less than this. Since electric current is distributed uniformly, therefore, magnitude of element of associated electric current,
$ I_e=\left(\frac{\pi r^2}{\pi a^2}\right)=\frac{l r^2}{a^2} $
On applying Ampere's law
$B \times(2 \pi r)=\frac{\mu_0 I r^2}{a^2}$
$\Rightarrow \quad B =\left(\frac{\mu_0 I r^2}{a^2}\right) \times \frac{1}{2 \pi r}$
$B =\left(\frac{\mu_0 I }{2 \pi a^2}\right) r$
In mathematical form,
$ \oint \overrightarrow{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\mu_0 \Sigma I $
where, $\mu_0=$ magnetic permeability of vacuum and $\oint \overrightarrow{ B } \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=$ is known as line integral of magnetic field $(\overrightarrow{ B })$.
We need to calculate the magnetic field at $r<a$ and for this ampere loop is that circle on which I is marked. On taking radius of the circle to be r for this loop,

Now here, the electric current associated is not I but less than this. Since electric current is distributed uniformly, therefore, magnitude of element of associated electric current,
$ I_e=\left(\frac{\pi r^2}{\pi a^2}\right)=\frac{l r^2}{a^2} $
On applying Ampere's law
$B \times(2 \pi r)=\frac{\mu_0 I r^2}{a^2}$
$\Rightarrow \quad B =\left(\frac{\mu_0 I r^2}{a^2}\right) \times \frac{1}{2 \pi r}$
$B =\left(\frac{\mu_0 I }{2 \pi a^2}\right) r$
