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MCQ

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200 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 11 Mark
For which logic gate the following statement is true? The output is high if and only if all inputs are high.
  • A
    NOR
  • B
    OR
  • C
    NAND
  • AND
Answer
Correct option: D.
AND
D
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MCQ 21 Mark
In light emitting diode (LED), light is given out due to ______.
  • A
    emission of holes and electrons
  • B
    drifting of electrons
  • recombination of holes and electrons
  • D
    diffusion of holes
Answer
Correct option: C.
recombination of holes and electrons
C
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MCQ 31 Mark
Using Bohr's model, the orbital period of electron in hydrogen atom in nth orbit is $(ε_0 =$ permittivity of free space, $h =$ Planck's constant, $m =$ mass of electron and $e =$ electronic charge$)$
  • A
    $\frac{2 \varepsilon_0^2 n^3 h^3}{m e^4}$
  • $\frac{4 \varepsilon_0^2 n^3 h^3}{m e^4}$
  • C
    $\frac{8 \varepsilon_0^2 n^3 h^3}{m e^4}$
  • D
    $\frac{2 \varepsilon_0 n^2 h^2}{m e^4}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\frac{4 \varepsilon_0^2 n^3 h^3}{m e^4}$
$\frac{4 \varepsilon_0^2 n^3 h^3}{m e^4}$
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MCQ 41 Mark
Angular speed of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is $4 \times 10^{16} \ rad/s$. What is its angular speed in $4^{th}$​​​​​​​ orbit?
  • A
    $4.25 \times 10^{14} \ rad/s$
  • $6.25 \times 10^{14} \ rad/s$
  • C
    $6.25 \times 10^{16} \ rad/s$
  • D
    $0.25 \times 10^{16} \ rad/s$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$6.25 \times 10^{14} \ rad/s$
$6.25 \times 10^{14} \ rad/s$
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MCQ 51 Mark
When a surface $1 cm$ thick is illuminated by light of wavelength ' $\lambda$ ', the stopping potential is ' $V_0$ '. When the same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength ' $3 \lambda$ ', the stopping potential is $\frac{ V _0}{6}$. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
  • A

  • B

  • C


Answer
Correct option: D.

D
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MCQ 61 Mark
When light of wavelength 'λ' is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is 'V'. When light of wavelength '3λ' is incident on the same surface, the stopping potential is $\frac{ V }{6}$. Threshold wavelength for the surface is _______.
  • A


  • C

  • D

Answer
Correct option: B.

B
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MCQ 71 Mark
When wavelength of incident radiation on the metal surface is reduced from $'\lambda _1\ '$ to $'\lambda _2\ ',$ the kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is tripled. The work function of the metal is $......$
$( h =$ Planck's constant, $c =$ velocity of light $)$
  • A
    $hc \left[\frac{2 \lambda_2-\lambda_1}{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}\right]$
  • B
    $\frac{ hc }{2}\left[\frac{2 \lambda_2-\lambda_1}{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}\right]$
  • $\frac{ hc }{2}\left[\frac{3 \lambda_2-\lambda_1}{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}\right]$
  • D
    $hc \left[\frac{3 \lambda_2-\lambda_1}{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}\right]$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\frac{ hc }{2}\left[\frac{3 \lambda_2-\lambda_1}{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}\right]$
$\frac{ hc }{2}\left[\frac{3 \lambda_2-\lambda_1}{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}\right]$
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MCQ 81 Mark
Out of the following graphs which graph shows the correct relation for LC parallel resonant circuit?
A.ImageB.ImageC.ImageD.Image
  • A
    D
  • B
    B
  • C
  • D
    A
Answer
Correct option: C.
C
C
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MCQ 101 Mark
Two coils of wire A and B are placed mutually perpendicular as shown. When current is changed in any one coil.
Image
  • no current will be induced in another coil.
  • B
    current induced in another coil is maximum.
  • C
    magnetic field will be perpendicular to plane of another coil.
  • D
    magnetic flux linked with another coil is maximum.
Answer
Correct option: A.
no current will be induced in another coil.
A
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MCQ 111 Mark
A step-up transformer has 300 turns of primary winding and 450 turns of secondary winding. A primary is connected to 150 V and the current flowing through it is 9A. The current and voltage in the secondary are 
  • A
    4.5 A, 100 V
  • B
    13.5 A, 225 V
  • 6.0 A, 225 V
  • D
    13.5 A, 100 V
Answer
Correct option: C.
6.0 A, 225 V
C
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MCQ 121 Mark
Magnetization of the sample is ______.
  • A
    Volume of the sample per unit magnetic dipole moment
  • B
    ratio of magnetic dipole moment and pole strength
  • C
    ratio of pole strength to magnetic dipole moment
  • net magnetic dipole moment per unit volume
Answer
Correct option: D.
net magnetic dipole moment per unit volume
D
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MCQ 131 Mark
All atoms of a magnetic substance have a resultant magnetic moment even in absence of external magnetic field. The substance is ______.
  • A
    paramagnetic
  • B
    either paramagnetic or diamagnetic
  • ferromagnetic
  • D
    either paramagnetic or ferromagnetic.
Answer
Correct option: C.
ferromagnetic
C
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MCQ 141 Mark
The susceptibility of a magnetic material is positive and small. The material is ______.
  • A
    ferromagnetic
  • B
    diamagnetic
  • paramagnetic
  • D
    diamagnetic and ferromagnetic
Answer
Correct option: C.
paramagnetic
C
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MCQ 151 Mark
Two particles $A$ and $ B$ have equal charges but different masses $M_A$ and $M_8.$  After being accelerated through same potential difference enter the region of uniform magnetic field and describe the path of radii $R_A$ and $R_B$ respectively. Then $M_A : M_B$ is $.........$
  • $\left(\frac{ R _{ A }}{ R _{ B }}\right)^2$
  • B
    $\frac{ R _{ A }}{ R _{ B }}$
  • C
    $\frac{ R _{ B }}{ R _{ A }}$
  • D
    $\left(\frac{R_B}{R_A}\right)^2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\left(\frac{ R _{ A }}{ R _{ B }}\right)^2$
$\left(\frac{ R _{ A }}{ R _{ B }}\right)^2$
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MCQ 161 Mark
Two galvanometers $'G_1\ '$ and $'G_2\ '$ require $2 \ mA $ and $3 \ mA$ respectively to produce the same deflection. Then $.......$
  • A
    Sensitivity of $G_2$ is $\frac{3}{2}$ times that of $G_1$
  • B
    $G_1$ is less sensitive than $G_2$​​​​​​​
  • $G_1$ is more sensitive than $G_2$​​​​​​​
  • D
    $G_1$ and $G_2$ are equally sensitive
Answer
Correct option: C.
$G_1$ is more sensitive than $G_2$​​​​​​​
$G_1$ is more sensitive than $G_2$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 171 Mark
The range of the voltmeter is 'V' when 50 n resistance is connected in series. Its range gets doubled when 500 Ω resistance is connected in series. The resistance of voltmeter is ______.
  • A
    600 Ω
  • 400 Ω
  • C
    200 Ω
  • D
    800 Ω
Answer
Correct option: B.
400 Ω
B
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MCQ 181 Mark
A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω requires 10 µA current for full scale deflection. Now a resistance of 1 Ω is connected to convert it into an ammeter. The minimum current required to obtain full scale deflection is ______.
  • 1.01 mA
  • B
    10.1 mA
  • C
    101 mA
  • D
    11.0 mA
Answer
Correct option: A.
1.01 mA
A
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MCQ 191 Mark
Sensitivity of a given potentiometer can be decreased by ______.
  • increasing the potential gradient along the wire
  • B
    decreasing the current through the wire
  • C
    increasing the current through the wire
  • D
    decreasing the potential gradient along the wire
Answer
Correct option: A.
increasing the potential gradient along the wire
A
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MCQ 201 Mark
Five capacitors each of capacitance 'C' are connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of equivalent capacitance between P and R and the equivalent capacitance between P and Q is ______.
Image
  • A
    1 : 1
  • 2 : 3
  • C
    3 : 1
  • D
    5 : 2
Answer
Correct option: B.
2 : 3
B
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MCQ 211 Mark
The equivalent capacity of two capacitors in series is 3µF and in parallel is 16µF. Their individual capacities in µF are ______.
  • A
    14, 2
  • 12, 4
  • C
    10, 6
  • D
    8, 8
Answer
Correct option: B.
12, 4
B
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MCQ 221 Mark
Choose the correct relation between polarization $'P\ '$ and electric susceptibility $'X_e\ '$ of dielectric material. $(E = $ electric field$)$
  • A
    $P=\frac{X e}{E^2}$
  • $P = X_eE$
  • C
    $P=\frac{X e}{E}$
  • D
    $P=X_e^2 E$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$P = X_eE$
$P = X_eE$
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MCQ 231 Mark
When a beam of unpolarised monochromatic light is incident on a plane glass plate at a polarizing angle, then which one of the following statements is correct?
  • A
    Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarized with their planes of polarization parallel to each other.
  • Reflected light is plane-polarized light but transmitted light is partially polarized.
  • C
    Reflected light is partially polarized but refracted light is plane polarised.
  • D
    Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarized with their planes of polarization perpendicular to each other.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Reflected light is plane-polarized light but transmitted light is partially polarized.
B
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MCQ 241 Mark
The condition for observing Fraunhofer diffraction pattern from an obstacle is that the light wavefront incident on it must be ______.
  • A
    spherical
  • B
    cylindrical
  • plane
  • D
    either cylindrical or spherical
Answer
Correct option: C.
plane
C
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MCQ 251 Mark
In Young's double slit experiment green light is incident on the two slits. The interference pattern is observed on a screen. Which one of the following changes would cause the observed fringes to be more closely spaced?
  • A
    Using red light instead of green light
  • B
    Reducing the separation between the slits
  • C
    Moving the screen away from the slits
  • Using blue light instead of green light
Answer
Correct option: D.
Using blue light instead of green light
D
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MCQ 261 Mark
An organ pipe has fundamental frequency 100 Hz. If its one end is closed, the frequencies produced will be ______.
  • A
    50, 100, 200, ...Hz
  • B
    100, 200, 300,...Hz
  • 50, 150, 250, ...Hz
  • D
    50, 100, 150, 200,...Hz
Answer
Correct option: C.
50, 150, 250, ...Hz
C
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MCQ 271 Mark
Two identical strings of length 'l' and '2l' vibrate with fundamental frequencies 'N' hertz and '1.5 N' hertz, respectively. The ratio of tensions for smaller length to larger ______.
  • A
    1 : 3
  • 1 : 9
  • C
    9 : 1
  • D
    3 : 1
Answer
Correct option: B.
1 : 9
B
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MCQ 281 Mark
A transverse wave propagating along the string is $y = 0.3 \sin (x + 20t)$ where $x, y$ are in metre and $t$ in second. The linear density of the string is $1.2 \times 10^{-4} \ kg/m.$ The tension in the string is$.......$
  • $0.048 N$
  • B
    $0.072 N$
  • C
    $0.096 N$
  • D
    $0.024 N$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$0.048 N$
$0.048 N$
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MCQ 291 Mark
A mass 'M' is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released so that the mass executes S.H.M. of period T. If the mass is increased by 'm', the time period becomes $\frac{' 5 T '}{3}$. What is the ratio $\left(\frac{ M }{ m }\right)$ ?
  • A
    $\frac{25}{9}$
  • B
    $\frac{16}{9}$
  • $\frac{9}{16}$
  • D
    $\frac{9}{25}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\frac{9}{16}$
C
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MCQ 301 Mark
A simple pendulum of length I has a bob of mass m. It executes SHM of small amplitude A. The maximum tension in the string is (g = acceleration due to gravity)
  • A
    mg
  • $mg \left(\frac{ A ^2}{ l ^2}+1\right)$
  • C
    2 mg
  • D
    $\operatorname{mg}\left(\frac{ A }{ l }+1\right)$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$mg \left(\frac{ A ^2}{ l ^2}+1\right)$
B
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MCQ 311 Mark
A block of mass 'M' is suspended from one end of a spring of force constant 'k'. The other end is rigidly attached to a horizontal platform. The mass oscillates vertically with a time period 'T'. If the mass gets detached from the spring, then the length of the spring will be shortened by (g = acceleration due to gravity).
  • A
    $\frac{ gT ^2}{4 \pi}$
  • B
    $\frac{ gT ^2}{2 \pi}$
  • C
    $\frac{ gT ^2}{2 \pi^2}$
  • $\frac{ gT ^2}{4 \pi^2}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\frac{ gT ^2}{4 \pi^2}$
D
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MCQ 321 Mark
An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to (8/27) of its original volume. If ratio of specific heats, y = 5/3 then the rise in temperature of the gas is ______.
  • A
    500 K
  • 375 K
  • C
    250 K
  • D
    125 K
Answer
Correct option: B.
375 K
B
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MCQ 331 Mark
The value of ' $\gamma$ ' for a gas is given as $\gamma=1+\frac{2}{f}$, where ' $f$ ' is the number of degrees of freedom of$\gamma_{\text {monoatonic }} / \gamma_{\text {diatomic }}$?
Diatomic gas consists of rigid gas molecules
  • A
    $\frac{3}{10}$
  • B
    $\frac{21}{25}$
  • C
    $\frac{10}{3}$
  • $\frac{25}{21}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\frac{25}{21}$
D
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MCQ 341 Mark
Two ideal gases A and B having the same temperature T, same pressure P and same volume V, are mixed together. If the temperature of mixture is kept constant and the volume occupied by the mixture is reduced to$\frac{ V }{2}$, then the pressure of the mixture will become ______.
  • A
    2P
  • 4P
  • C
    $\frac{ P }{2}$
  • D
    P
Answer
Correct option: B.
4P
B
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MCQ 351 Mark
A large vessel completely filled with water has two holes 'A' and 'B' at depths 'h' and '4h' from the top. Hole 'A' is a square of side 'L' and hole 'B' is circle of radius 'R'. If from both the holes same quantity of water is flowing per second, then side of square hole is ______.
  • A
    2πR
  • B
    $\sqrt{2 \pi R }$
  • $\sqrt{2 \pi} \cdot R$
  • D
    $\frac{ R }{2}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\sqrt{2 \pi} \cdot R$
C
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MCQ 361 Mark
The Reynold's number for a liquid flow in a tube does NOT depend on ______.
  • A
    the viscosity of the liquid
  • B
    the velocity of the liquid
  • the length of the tube
  • D
    the diameter of the tube
Answer
Correct option: C.
the length of the tube
C
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MCQ 371 Mark
A body is moving along a circular track of radius $100 m$ with velocity $20 m/s.$ Its tangential acceleration is $3 m/s^2$ then its resultant accelaration will be$......$
  • A
    $3 m/s^2$​​​​​​​
  • $5 m/s^2$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $4 m/s^2$​​​​​​​
  • D
    $2 m/s^2$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: B.
$5 m/s^2$​​​​​​​
$5 m/s^2$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 381 Mark
Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about their axes of rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their angular momenta will be in the ratio ______.
  • A
    $1: 2 \sqrt{2}$
  • $1: \sqrt{2}$
  • C
    2 : 1
  • D
    1 : 2
Answer
Correct option: B.
$1: \sqrt{2}$
B
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MCQ 391 Mark
A particle of mass m is performing UCM along a circle of radius r. The relation between centripetal acceleration a and kinetic energy E is given by
  • A
    a = 2Em
  • B
    $a =\frac{ E }{ mr }$
  • C
    $a =\left(\frac{2 E }{ mr }\right)^2$
  • $a =\frac{2 E }{ mr }$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$a =\frac{2 E }{ mr }$
D
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MCQ 401 Mark
A horizontal circular platform of mass 100 kg is rotating at 5 r.p.m. about vertical axis passing through its centre. A child of mass 20 kg is standing on the edge of platform. If the child comes to the centre of platform then the frequency of rotation will become ______.
  • A
    9 r.p.m
  • B
    12 r.p.m
  • 7 r.p.m.
  • D
    5 r.p.m
Answer
Correct option: C.
7 r.p.m.
C
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MCQ 411 Mark
The depletion layer in the p-n junction diode is caused by ______.
  • A
    drift of electrons.
  • B
    drift of holes.
  • diffusion of charge carriers.
  • D
    migration of impurity ions.
Answer
Correct option: C.
diffusion of charge carriers.
C
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MCQ 421 Mark
An electron experiences a force equal to its weight, when placed in an electric field. The intensity of the field will be$......$
  • $5.5 \times 10^{-11} N/C$
  • B
    $1.7 \times 10^{-11} N/C$
  • C
    $56 \ N/C$
  • D
    $5.0 \times 10^{-11} N/C$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$5.5 \times 10^{-11} N/C$
$5.5 \times 10^{-11} N/C$
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MCQ 431 Mark
A light travels through water in the beaker. The height of water column is $'\ h\ '.$ Refractive index of water is $'\mu _w\ '.$ If $c$ is velocity of light in air, the time taken by light to travel through water will $......$
  • A
    $\frac{ h }{\mu_{ w } c }$
  • B
    $\frac{ hc }{\mu_{ w }}$
  • C
    $h \mu_{ w } c$
  • $\frac{\mu_{ w } h }{ c }$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\frac{\mu_{ w } h }{ c }$
$\frac{\mu_{ w } h }{ c }$
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MCQ 441 Mark
For the same angle of incidence, the angle of refraction in four media A, B, C and D are 25°, 30°, 35° and 40° respectively. The speed of light is least in medium ______.
  • A
    C
  • B
    D
  • C
    B
  • A
Answer
Correct option: D.
A
D
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MCQ 451 Mark
An obstacle is moving towards the source with velocity $v.$ The sound is reflected from the obstacle. If $c$ is the speed of sound and $A,$ is the wavelength, then the wavelength of the reflected wave $\lambda _r$ is
  • A
    $\lambda_{ r }=\left(\frac{ c - v }{ c }\right) \lambda$
  • $\lambda_{ r }=\left(\frac{ c - v }{ c + v }\right) \lambda$
  • C
    $\lambda_{ r }=\left(\frac{ c + v }{ c }\right) \lambda$
  • D
    $\lambda_{ r }=\left(\frac{ c + v }{ c }\right) \lambda$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\lambda_{ r }=\left(\frac{ c - v }{ c + v }\right) \lambda$
$\lambda_{ r }=\left(\frac{ c - v }{ c + v }\right) \lambda$
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MCQ 461 Mark
Earth revolves round the sun in a circular orbit of radius $'R\ '. $The angular momentum of the revolving earth is directly proprtional to $........$
  • A
    $R$
  • B
    $R^2$​​​​​​​
  • $\sqrt{ R }$
  • D
    $R^3$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\sqrt{ R }$
$\sqrt{ R }$
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MCQ 471 Mark
For the weight of body of mass $5 \ kg$ to be zero on equator of the earth, angular velocity of the earth must be $($The radius of earth $= 6400 \ km,$ acceleration due to gravity $= 10 m/s^2).$
  • $\frac{1}{800} rad / s$
  • B
    $\frac{1}{80} rad / s$
  • C
    $\frac{1}{1600} rad / s$
  • D
    $\frac{1}{400} rad / s$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{1}{800} rad / s$
$\frac{1}{800} rad / s$
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MCQ 481 Mark
A lift is tied with thick iron ropes having mass $'M\ '.$ The maximum acceleration of the lift is $'a\ ' m/s^2$ and maximum safe stress is $'S\ ' N/m^2.$ The minimum diameter of the rope is $......$
  • A
    $\left[\frac{ M ( g - a )}{\pi S }\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
  • $\left[\frac{4 M ( g + a )}{\pi S }\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
  • C
    $\left[\frac{ M ( g + a )}{\pi S }\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
  • D
    $\left[\frac{6 M ( g + a )}{\pi S }\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\left[\frac{4 M ( g + a )}{\pi S }\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
$\left[\frac{4 M ( g + a )}{\pi S }\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
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MCQ 491 Mark
A mass M moving with velocity 'v' along x-axis collides and sticks to another mass 2M which is moving along Y-axis with velocity 3v. After collision, the velocity of the combination is ______.
  • A
    $\frac{2 v }{3} \hat{ i }+\hat{ j }$
  • $\frac{v}{3} \hat{i}+2 v \hat{j}$
  • C
    $\frac{ v }{3} \hat{ i }-2 v \hat{ j }$
  • D
    $v \hat{i}+\frac{v}{3} \hat{j}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\frac{v}{3} \hat{i}+2 v \hat{j}$
B
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MCQ 501 Mark
A particle is moving in uniform circular motion with speed 'V' and radius 'R'. The angular acceleration of the particle is ______.
  • A
    $\frac{ V ^2}{ R }$ along the radius towards the centre of the circle
  • B
    $\frac{ V ^2}{ R }$along tangent to the circle.
  • zero
  • D
    $\frac{ V ^2}{ R }$perpendicular to the plane of the circle.
Answer
Correct option: C.
zero
C
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MCQ 511 Mark
Which of the following polymers contain ester linkage?
  • A
    Buna-S
  • B
    Neoprene
  • C
    Orlon
  • PHBV
Answer
Correct option: D.
PHBV
D
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MCQ 521 Mark
Which of the following properties is of the thermosetting polymers?
  • A
    These can be recycled
  • B
    These can be remoulded
  • These are cross-linked polymers
  • D
    On heating these become soft
Answer
Correct option: C.
These are cross-linked polymers
C
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MCQ 531 Mark
Which of the following statements is NOT true for glyceraldehyde?
  • A
    It is optically active.
  • B
    It has carbonyl and hydroxyl group.
  • It contains two asymmetric carbon atoms.
  • D
    It is a sugar molecule.
Answer
Correct option: C.
It contains two asymmetric carbon atoms.
C
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MCQ 541 Mark
Which following reagent is used to detect presence of five hydroxyl groups in a glucose molecule?
  • A
    $Br_2$ water
  • B
    Hydroxyl amine
  • C
    Dilute nitric acid
  • Acetic anhydride
Answer
Correct option: D.
Acetic anhydride
Acetic anhydride
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MCQ 551 Mark
Which among the following amino acids has lowest molar mass?
  • A
    Aspartic acid
  • B
    Arginine
  • C
    Asparagine
  • Alanine
Answer
Correct option: D.
Alanine
D
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MCQ 561 Mark
Which group from following decreases the basic strength in substituted aniline?
  • $- C _6 H _5$
  • B
    $- CH _3$
  • C
    $- NH _2$
  • D
    $- OCH _3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$- C _6 H _5$
A
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MCQ 571 Mark
Identify the product obtained when chlorobenzene is heated with ammonia and $Cu_2O$ at $473 K$ under pressure.
  • A
    Benzaldehyde
  • B
    Benzene
  • C
    Benzenediazonium chloride
  • Aniline
Answer
Correct option: D.
Aniline
Aniline
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MCQ 581 Mark
Identify the product obtained when benzamide is treated with bromine and aqueous sodium hydroxide?
  • Aniline
  • B
    Benzyl alcohol
  • C
    Phenol
  • D
    Bromobenzene
Answer
Correct option: A.
Aniline
A
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MCQ 591 Mark
Which of the following compounds is obtained on ozonolysis of Image followed by reduction with Zn dust and water?
  • A
    Butanal
  • Propanone
  • C
    Butanone
  • D
    Propanal
Answer
Correct option: B.
Propanone
B
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MCQ 601 Mark
Which of the following is a Stephen reaction?
  • A

    Image


  • Image
  • C
    $R - COCl \xrightarrow[ Pd _{-} BaSO _4]{ H _2} R - CHO + HCl$
  • D
    $R - CH = O \xrightarrow[- H _2 O ]{ H _2 N - NH _2} R - CH = N - NH _2 \xrightarrow[\Delta]{ KOH / \text { ethylene glycol }} R - CH _3+ N _2$
Answer
Correct option: B.

Image
B
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MCQ 611 Mark
Identify ' $A$ ' and 'B' respectively in following reaction.
Toluene $\underset{\text { hv }}{ Cl _2} A \xrightarrow[\Delta]{ H _2 O } B$
  • Benzyl chloride and benzaldehyde
  • B
    Benzoyl chloride and benzoic acid
  • C
    Benzoyl chloride and benzaldehyde
  • D
    Benzyl chloride and benzoic acid
Answer
Correct option: A.
Benzyl chloride and benzaldehyde
A
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MCQ 621 Mark
Which of the following alcohols has tertiary allylic carbon?
  • 2-Methylbut-3-en-2- ol
  • B
    Prop-2-en-l-ol
  • C
    But-3-en-2-ol
  • D
    l-Phenyl ethanol
Answer
Correct option: A.
2-Methylbut-3-en-2- ol
A
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MCQ 631 Mark
Which of the following reagents is used to convert phenol to benzene?
  • $Zn ($dust$)$
  • B
    $LiAlH_4$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $KMnO_4($acidified$)$ 
  • D
    $Na$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$Zn ($dust$)$
$Zn ($dust$)$
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MCQ 641 Mark
When methoxy benzene reacts with HI at room temperature the products formed are ______.
  • A
    lodomethane and Iodobenzene
  • Iodomethane and Phenol
  • C
    lodomethane and Benzene
  • D
    Methanol and lodobenzene
Answer
Correct option: B.
Iodomethane and Phenol
B
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MCQ 651 Mark
Which of the following is NOT formed when an equimolar mixture of bromomethane and bromobenzene is treated with sodium metal in dry ether?
  • A
    Diphenyl
  • B
    Ethane
  • C
    Methylbenzene
  • Ethylbenzene
Answer
Correct option: D.
Ethylbenzene
D
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MCQ 661 Mark
The number of optical isomers possible for 3, 4-dichloropentan-2-ol is ______.
  • Eight
  • B
    Four
  • C
    Two
  • D
    Sixteen
Answer
Correct option: A.
Eight
A
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MCQ 671 Mark
Identify 'A' in the following reaction:
$
C _2 H _5 OH + HCl \xrightarrow{ A } C _2 H _5 Cl + H _2 O
$
  • A
    conc $\cdot H _2 SO _4$
  • anhydrous $ZnCl _2$
  • C
  • D
    pyridine
Answer
Correct option: B.
anhydrous $ZnCl _2$
B
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MCQ 681 Mark
Identify monodentate ligand from following.
  • A
    Dimethylglyoximato
  • B
    Diethylenetriamine
  • Ammonia
  • D
    Ethylenediamine
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ammonia
C
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MCQ 691 Mark
Which among the following is an ambidentate ligand?
  • A
    Image
  • $NO _2^{-}$
  • C
    $H_2O$
  • D
    Image
Answer
Correct option: B.
$NO _2^{-}$
$NO _2^{-}$
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MCQ 701 Mark
Which statement from following is true for a complex hexaminecobalt (III) chloride?
  • In this oxidation state of cobalt is +3
  • B
    It is an anionic complex
  • C
    It is a heteroleptic complex
  • D
    In this coordination number of cobalt is 9
Answer
Correct option: A.
In this oxidation state of cobalt is +3
A
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MCQ 721 Mark
Which cation from following does $ \text{NOT}$ form colourless compound? $($Atomic number $- Cu = 29, Ti = 22, Zn = 30, Sc = 21)$
  • A
    $Zn^{2+}$​​​​​​​
  • B
    $Cu^{1+}$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $Sc^{3+}$​​​​​​​
  • $Ti^{3+}$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: D.
$Ti^{3+}$​​​​​​​
$Ti^{3+}$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 731 Mark
What is the role of tuyers used in blast furnace for extraction of iron?
  • A
    It prevents loss of hot gases.
  • To blow a blast of preheated air in to the furnace.
  • C
    It enables the even distribution of charge.
  • D
    It is used to remove molten slag and iron.
Answer
Correct option: B.
To blow a blast of preheated air in to the furnace.
B
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MCQ 741 Mark
Which is the lowest oxidation state possessed by chlorine in it's oxyacids?
  • A
    −2
  • B
    +3
  • C
    +5
  •  +1
Answer
Correct option: D.
 +1
D
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MCQ 751 Mark
Which among the following pairs of halogen forms the interhalogen compound of the type $XX _7^{\prime}$ ?
  • A
    Cl and F
  • I and F
  • C
    Br and F
  • D
    I and Cl
Answer
Correct option: B.
I and F
B
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MCQ 761 Mark
The slope of a graph, $\log [A]_t$ versus $'\ t\ '$ for a first order reaction is $−2.5 \times 10^{−3} s^{−1}.$ The rate constant for the reaction is $.......$
  • A
    $1.086 \times 10^{−3} s^{−1}$​​​​​​​
  • B
    $−2.5 \times 10^{−3} s^{−1}$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $2.5 \times 10^{−3} s^{−1}$​​​​​​​
  • $5.757 \times 10^{−3} s^{−1}$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: D.
$5.757 \times 10^{−3} s^{−1}$​​​​​​​
$5.757 \times 10^{−3} s^{−1}$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 771 Mark
In the reaction $2 SO _2+ O _2 \longrightarrow 2 SO _3$ the rate of appearance of $SO _3$ is $4 \times 10^{-4} M / s$, the rate of disappearance of $O _2$ is $.......$
  • $2.0 \times 10^{−4} M/s$
  • B
    $1.0 \times 10^{−4} M/s$
  • C
    $4.0 \times 10^{−4} M/s$
  • D
    $6.0 \times 10^{−4} M/s$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$2.0 \times 10^{−4} M/s$
$2.0 \times 10^{−4} M/s$
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MCQ 781 Mark
For first order reaction the slope of the graph of $log_{10} [A]_t $ Vs. time is equal to $..............$
  • A
    $k$
  • B
    $\frac{ k }{2.303}$
  • $-\frac{ k }{2.303}$
  • D
    $−k$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$-\frac{ k }{2.303}$
$-\frac{ k }{2.303}$
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MCQ 791 Mark
What is the standard emf of the following cell?
$
Ni _{( s )}\left| Ni _{( aq )}^{2+}\right|\left| Au _{( aq )}^{3+}\right| Au _{( s )}
$
if
$
\begin{array}{ll}
& E _{ Ni }^0 \\
=-0.25 V , & E _{ Au }^0 \\
=1.50 V . &
\end{array}
$
  • A
    −1.75 V
  • 1.75 V
  • C
    −1.25 V
  • D
    1.25 V
Answer
Correct option: B.
1.75 V
B
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MCQ 801 Mark
During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the product obtained at cathode is $.............$
  • A
    $Cl_{2(g)}$
  • B
    $O_{2(g)}$
  • $Na_{(s)}$
  • D
    $H_{2(g)}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$Na_{(s)}$
$Na_{(s)}$
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MCQ 811 Mark
Electrolysis of dilute aqueous solution of $NaCl$ was carried out by passing $0.01 A$ current. What is the time required to liberate $0.01$ moles of $H_{2(g)} $ at the cathode?
  • $19.3 \times 10^4 \sec$
  • B
    $9.65 \times 10^4 \sec$
  • C
    $38.6 \times 10^4 \sec$
  • D
    $28.95 \times 10^4 \sec$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$19.3 \times 10^4 \sec$
$19.3 \times 10^4 \sec$
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MCQ 821 Mark
At what temperature, a chemical reaction will have the following values of $\triangle G, \triangle S$ and $\triangle H?\triangle G = −5.2 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}, \triangle H = 145.6 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}, \triangle S = −216 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}$
  • $698.1 K$
  • B
    $425.0 K$
  • C
    $823.0 K$
  • D
    $650.0 K$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$698.1 K$
$698.1 K$
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MCQ 831 Mark
Equilibrium constant for a reaction is $20$. What is the value of $\triangle G^0 $ at $300 K? (R = 8 \times 10^{−3} kJ)$
  • A
    $−5.527 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}$
  • B
    $16.63 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}$
  • C
    $−2.763 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}$
  • $−7.191 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$−7.191 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}$
$−7.191 \ kJ \ mol^{−1}$
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MCQ 841 Mark
Heat of combustion of $C_{(s)}, H_{2(g)}$_ and $C_2H_{6(g)} $ are $−x_1, −x_2 $ and $−x_3$ respectively. Hence heat of formation of $C_2H_{6(g)}​​​​​​​$ is $.........$
  • $−2x_1 − 3x_2 + x_3$
  • B
    $−X_3 + 2x_1 + 3x_2$
  • C
    $x_1 + x_2 − x_3$
  • D
    $−x_1 − x_2 + x_3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$−2x_1 − 3x_2 + x_3$
$−2x_1 − 3x_2 + x_3$
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MCQ 851 Mark
Which of the following equation is correct to determine osmotic pressure using van't Hoff equation?
  • A
    πC = VRT
  • $\pi V=\frac{ W _2 RT }{ M _2}$
  • C
    $\pi=\frac{ W _2 RT }{ M _2}$
  • D
    πV = k
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\pi V=\frac{ W _2 RT }{ M _2}$
B
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MCQ 861 Mark
Which of the following solution will have highest freezing point depression?
  • 1 M KCl
  • B
    1 M sucrose
  • C
    1 M glucose
  • D
    1 M urea
Answer
Correct option: A.
1 M KCl
A
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MCQ 871 Mark
Relative lowering in vapour pressure of a solution containing non-volatile solute is the ratio of ____________.
  • number of moles of solute to total number of moles of solution
  • B
    number of moles of solvent to number of moles of solute
  • C
    number of moles of solute to number of moles of solvent
  • D
    number of moles of solvent to total number of moles of solution
Answer
Correct option: A.
number of moles of solute to total number of moles of solution
A
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MCQ 881 Mark
Fullerene is an example of ____________.
  • A
    Metallic solid
  • Covalent solid
  • C
    Molecular solid
  • D
    Ionic Solid
Answer
Correct option: B.
Covalent solid
B
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MCQ 891 Mark
What is the edge length of fcc type of unit cell having density and atomic mass $6.22 g \ cm^{−3} $ and $60 g$ respectively?
  • $4.0 \times 10^{−8} \ cm$
  • B
    $8.0 \times 10^{−8} \ cm$
  • C
    $3.47 \times 10^{−7} \ cm$
  • D
    $6.83 \times 10^{−7} \ cm$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$4.0 \times 10^{−8} \ cm$
$4.0 \times 10^{−8} \ cm$
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MCQ 901 Mark
An element with density $2.8 g \ cm^{−3} $ forms fcc unit cell having edge length $4 \times 10^{−8} cm.$ Calculate molar mass of the element.
  • A
    $22.0 g \ mol^{−1}$
  • B
    $33.0 g \ mol^{−1}$
  • $27.0 g \ mol^{−1}$
  • D
    $36.0 g \ mol^{−1}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$27.0 g \ mol^{−1}$
$27.0 g \ mol^{−1}$
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MCQ 911 Mark
What is the torsion angle in staggered conformation of ethane?
  • A

  • B
    180°
  • 60°
  • D
    45°
Answer
Correct option: C.
60°
C
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MCQ 921 Mark
The most unstable free radical among the following is:
  • A
    $R – CH_2$
  • B
    $R_3 – C$
  • $CH_3$
  • D
    $R_2 – CH$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$CH_3$
$CH_3$
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MCQ 931 Mark
Which of the following alkyl groups shows maximum positive inductive effect?
  • A
    $\left( CH _3\right)_2 CH -$
  • B
    $CH _3- CH _2-$
  • $\left( CH _3\right)_3 C -$
  • D
    $CH _3-$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\left( CH _3\right)_3 C -$
C
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MCQ 951 Mark
Volume of a balloon at 25°C and 1 bar pressure is 2.27 L. If the pressure of the gas in balloon is reduced to 0.227 bar, what is the rise in volume of a gas?
  • A
    10.227 L
  • B
    12.27 L
  • C
    10 L
  • 7.73 L
Answer
Correct option: D.
7.73 L
D
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MCQ 961 Mark
Which of the following compounds is known as slaked lime?
  • A
    $CaSO_4$
  • $Ca(OH)_2$
  • C
    $CaO$
  • D
    $CaCO_3$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$Ca(OH)_2$
$Ca(OH)_2$
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MCQ 971 Mark
Identify the oxidising agent in the following reaction:
$CH _{4( g )}+2 O _{2( g )} \longrightarrow CO _{2( g )}+2 H _2 O _{( l )}$
  • A
    $CO_{2(g)}$
  • B
    $H_2O_{(l)}$
  • C
    $CH_{4(g)}$
  • $O_{2(g)}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$O_{2(g)}$
$O_{2(g)}$
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MCQ 981 Mark
Which of the following is correct decreasing order of the repulsive Interaction of electron pairs in a molecule?
  • A
    lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair
  • B
    bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - long pair
  • lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
  • D
    bond pair - bond pair = bond pair - long pair > lone pair - lone pair
Answer
Correct option: C.
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
C
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MCQ 991 Mark
The $\text{H-N-H}$ bond angle in $NH_3 $ molecule is $.........$
  • A
    $90^\circ$
  • $107^\circ 18\ '$
  • C
    $101^\circ$
  • D
    $109^\circ 28\ '$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$107^\circ 18\ '$
$107^\circ 18\ '$
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MCQ 1001 Mark
Which of the following hydride does not obey law of constant proportion?
  • A
    $H_2O$
  • $\text{LaH}$
  • C
    $CH_4$
  • D
    $B_2H_6$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\text{LaH}$
$\text{LaH}$
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MCQ 1011 Mark
Which one of the following is an example of in situ conservation of biodiversity?
  • A
    Zoological park
  • B
    Culture collection
  • C
    Botanical garden
  • National Park
Answer
Correct option: D.
National Park
D
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MCQ 1021 Mark
Gaurav visited a zoo where he saw tiger, lion, camel, musk deer, red fox, one-horned rhinoceros, great Indian bustard and peacock. He wanted to report the endangered species from the above list. The number will be ____________.
  • A
    5
  • 4
  • C
    8
  • D
    3
Answer
Correct option: B.
4
B
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MCQ 1031 Mark
The monitoring stations, established by NEERI, have reported that Kolkata and New Delhi have highest ____________ and ____________ in air respectively.
  • A
    Carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide
  • Carbon monoxide, suspended particulate matter
  • C
    Carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide
  • D
    Sulphur dioxide, suspended particulate matter
Answer
Correct option: B.
Carbon monoxide, suspended particulate matter
B
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MCQ 1041 Mark
In xerarch succession which one of the following brings about initial weathering of rocks to form soil?
  • Lichens
  • B
    Shrubs
  • C
    Trees
  • D
    Herbs
Answer
Correct option: A.
Lichens
A
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MCQ 1051 Mark
On land, plants get carbon from $.......$
  • A
    Supplements added to the soil
  • B
    The $CO_2$ dissolved in soil water
  • C
    Carbonate rocks in the surroundings
  • Fixation of atmospheric $CO_2$​​​​​​​ during photosynthesis
Answer
Correct option: D.
Fixation of atmospheric $CO_2$​​​​​​​ during photosynthesis
Fixation of atmospheric $CO_2$​​​​​​​ during photosynthesis
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MCQ 1061 Mark
Which one of the following in NOT a mode of nutrition in fungi?
  • A
    Symbiotic
  • Autotrophic
  • C
    Saprophytic
  • D
    Parasitic
Answer
Correct option: B.
Autotrophic
B
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MCQ 1071 Mark
Which one of the following plays an important role in recycling of nutrients on earth?
  • A
    Macroconsumers
  • B
    Producers
  • C
    Pioneers
  • Deomposers
Answer
Correct option: D.
Deomposers
D
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MCQ 1081 Mark
Logistic growth curve has many phases which are respectively:
  • A
    Acceleration phase followed by lag phase & deceleration phase & finally a stationary phase
  • B
    Accleratfon phase followed by lag phase and decef·eration and finally a stationary phase
  • C
    Lag phase followed by phases of acceleration and stationary phase and finally a deceleration phase
  • Lag phase followed by phases of acceleration and deceleration and finally a stationary phase
Answer
Correct option: D.
Lag phase followed by phases of acceleration and deceleration and finally a stationary phase
D
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MCQ 1091 Mark
Exponential growth equation is $N_t=N_0 e^\pi$ where $N_t=$ population density after time $t$ then what does $N_0$, e and $r$ refers to respectively
  • A
    The base of natural logarithm, intrinsic rate of natural increase, population density of time zero
  • Population density at time zero, the base of natural logarithm intrinsic rate of natural increase
  • C
    Population density at time· zero, intrinsic rate of natural increase, e = the base of natural logarithms
  • D
    Intrinsic rate of natural increase, the base of natural logarithm population density at time zero
Answer
Correct option: B.
Population density at time zero, the base of natural logarithm intrinsic rate of natural increase
B
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MCQ 1101 Mark
Here is the figure depicting annual variations in biomes. Fit in the correct match from the list
Image
1. Temperate forest
2. Tropical forest
3. Coniferous forest
4. Grassland
5. Desert
6. Arctic and Alpine tundra
  • A - 5, B - 4, C - 2, D- 1, E - 3, F - 6
  • B
    A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 5, E - 6, F - 2
  • C
    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4, E - 5, F - 6
  • D
    A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 5, E - 3, F - 6
Answer
Correct option: A.
A - 5, B - 4, C - 2, D- 1, E - 3, F - 6
A
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MCQ 1111 Mark
Which of these is/are considered the major biomes of the world.
  • A
    Coniferous forest and Grassland
  • B
    Tropical rain forest and temperate forest
  • C
    Tundra and desert
  • All of the above
Answer
Correct option: D.
All of the above
D
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MCQ 1121 Mark
Which spectrum of the light harmful to organism: ____________.
  • UV component
  • B
    Red and Blue light
  • C
    Visible spectrum
  • D
    All of the above
Answer
Correct option: A.
UV component
A
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MCQ 1131 Mark
Gene of which of the following is NOT there in genetically modified golden rice?
  • A
    Maize
  • B
    Daffodils
  • Spirulina
  • D
    Erwinia
Answer
Correct option: C.
Spirulina
C
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MCQ 1141 Mark
Polymerase Chain Reaction is made possible by ____________.
  • Automated machine
  • B
    ln vivo cloning
  • C
    Reverse transcription
  • D
    Gel electrophoresis
Answer
Correct option: A.
Automated machine
A
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MCQ 1151 Mark
The process in which sample DNA and probe DNA form double stranded DNA is called ____________.
  • A
    Electrophoresis
  • B
    Restriction digestion
  • C
    Amplification
  • Hybridization
Answer
Correct option: D.
Hybridization
D
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MCQ 1161 Mark
Which one of the following is NOT a genetic material in bacteriophage?
  • A
    ssRNA
  • B
    dsDNA
  • r-DNA
  • D
    ssDNA
Answer
Correct option: C.
r-DNA
C
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MCQ 1171 Mark
In PCR technique, the organism providing thermostable DNA polymerase is a ____________.
  • A
    Fungus
  • Bacterium
  • C
    Alga
  • D
    Bacteriphage
Answer
Correct option: B.
Bacterium
B
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MCQ 1181 Mark
Select the correct match from the following.
  • A
    Escherichia coli - smallest genome
  • B
    Pancreas from dog - Humulin
  • C
    Hair root from human - Extracted and purified insulin
  • Female banded krait - DNA probe
Answer
Correct option: D.
Female banded krait - DNA probe
D
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MCQ 1191 Mark
Match the following product in column $- I$ with their ource in column $- II.$ Select the correct option.
  Column $- I$   Column $- II$
$(a)$ Gluconic acid $(i)$ Trichoderma koenigii
$(b)$ Vitamin $B_{12}$​​​​​​​ $(ii)$ Streptomyces erythreus
$(c)$ Erythromycin $(iii)$ Pseudomonas denitrificans
$(d)$ Cellulase $(iv)$ Aspergillus niger
  • A
    $(a)- (ii) ; (b) - (i) ; (c)- (iv) ; (d)- (iii)$
  • B
    $(a) - (ii) ; (b) - (iii) ; (c) - (i) ; (d) - (iv)$
  • $(a)- (iv) ; (b)- (iii) ; (c)- (ii) ; (d)- (i)$
  • D
    $(a)- (i) ; (b)- (ii) ; (c)- (iv) ; (d)- (iii)$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$(a)- (iv) ; (b)- (iii) ; (c)- (ii) ; (d)- (i)$
$(a)- (iv) ; (b)- (iii) ; (c)- (ii) ; (d)- (i)$
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MCQ 1201 Mark
To get a disease-free plant from a virus infected plant, which one of the following can be used as an explant in tissue culture?
  • A
    Parenchyma from pith
  • B
    Floral buds
  • C
    Medullary rays
  • Shoot apical meristem
Answer
Correct option: D.
Shoot apical meristem
D
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MCQ 1211 Mark
Match the enzyme in column l with its microbial source in column ll and select the correct alternative.
Column I Column II
(i)lnvertase(a)Rhizopus sp
(ii)Pectinase(b)Saccharonmyces cerevisiae
(iii)Lipase(c)Trichoderma konigi
(iv)Cellulase(d)Sclerotiana libertine
  • (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)
  • B
    (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (a)
  • C
    (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (b)
  • D
    (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (a)
Answer
Correct option: A.
(i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)
A
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MCQ 1221 Mark
Mice are appropriate choice as transgenic animals for following reasons EXCEPT.
  • A
    They exhibit polyembryony.
  • They do not normally exhibit super ovulation.
  • C
    They are used to test safety of polio vaccine.
  • D
    They have short generation time.
Answer
Correct option: B.
They do not normally exhibit super ovulation.
B
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MCQ 1231 Mark
Cheese is a milk product of fermentation carried but by ____________.
  • A
    Mycorrhiza
  • B
    Protozoa
  • Fungi
  • D
    Cyanobacteria
Answer
Correct option: C.
Fungi
C
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MCQ 1241 Mark
Column - I contains names of host plant while Column - II contains names of viral dieases. Find the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(I)Banana(p)little leaf
(II)Sugarcane(q)bunchy top
(III)Papaya(r)leaf roll
(IV)Brinjal(s)grassy shoot
(t)leaf curl
  • A
    (I) - (q) ; (II - (r) ; (III) - (s) ; (IV) - (t) ; (V) - (p)
  • B
    (I) - (q) ; (II) - (r) ; (III) - (p) ; (lV) - (s) ; (V) - (t)
  • (I) - (q) ; (II) - (s) ; (III) - (t) ; (IV) - (r) ; (V) - (p)
  • D
    (I)- (q) ; (II) - (s) ; (III) - (r) ; (IV) - (t) ; (V) - (p)
Answer
Correct option: C.
(I) - (q) ; (II) - (s) ; (III) - (t) ; (IV) - (r) ; (V) - (p)
C
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MCQ 1251 Mark
Diacetylmorphine is extracted from ____________.
  • Papaver sominifera
  • B
    Clavicepspurpurea
  • C
    Cannabis sativa
  • D
    Erythroxylum coca
Answer
Correct option: A.
Papaver sominifera
A
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MCQ 1261 Mark
With reference to antibodies, opsonisation means ____________.
  • A
    Engulfing invading pathogens
  • B
    Releasing Lymphokines and Perforins
  • Coating of bacteria for subsequent phagocytosis
  • D
    Neutralizing toxins released by bacteria
Answer
Correct option: C.
Coating of bacteria for subsequent phagocytosis
C
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MCQ 1271 Mark
Antibiotics used in the control of infectious diseases are ____________.
  • Both bactericidal and fungicidal
  • B
    Only fungicidal
  • C
    Only bactericidal
  • D
    Only insecticidal
Answer
Correct option: A.
Both bactericidal and fungicidal
A
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MCQ 1281 Mark
Discoloration, thickening, crumbling and falling off of nails in Ringworm infection is termed as ____________.
  • A
    Pruritis
  • B
    Conjunctivitis
  • Onchomycosis
  • D
    Epistaxis
Answer
Correct option: C.
Onchomycosis
C
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MCQ 1291 Mark
An adult man feels excessive thirst and excretes large volume of dilute urine. He may be suffering from ____________.
  • A
    Acromegaly
  • B
    Myxedema
  • Diabetes Insipidus
  • D
    Addison's disease
Answer
Correct option: C.
Diabetes Insipidus
C
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MCQ 1301 Mark
Hormone Cortisol stimulates following processes EXCEPT ____________.
  • A
    Erythropoiesis
  • B
    Gluconeogenesis
  • C
    Lipolysis
  • Protein synthesis
Answer
Correct option: D.
Protein synthesis
D
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MCQ 1311 Mark
Which cranial nerve controls the movement of neck and tongue?
  • Spinal accessory, hypoglossal
  • B
    Trigeminal, abducens
  • C
    Abducens, facial
  • D
    Vagus, glossopharyngeal
Answer
Correct option: A.
Spinal accessory, hypoglossal
A
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MCQ 1321 Mark
The receptors present in the carotid bodies which detect the decrease in $CO_2$ concentration in blood are $........$
  • A
    Tangoreceptors
  • B
    Frigido receptors
  • C
    Proprioceptors
  • Chemoreceptors
Answer
Correct option: D.
Chemoreceptors
Chemoreceptors
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MCQ 1331 Mark
Which statement is correct regarding spinal nerves in man?
  • A
    They are sensory, motor and mixed types.
  • Each spinal nerve is formed within neural canal of vertebral column.
  • C
    There are 21 pairs of spinal nerves.
  • D
    They come out of vertebral column through foramen magnum.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Each spinal nerve is formed within neural canal of vertebral column.
B
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MCQ 1341 Mark
Loss of sense of small in a person may indicate damage to ____________ part of his brain.
  • Rhinencephalon
  • B
    Thalamencepbalon
  • C
    Rhombencephalon
  • D
    Mesencephalon
Answer
Correct option: A.
Rhinencephalon
A
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MCQ 1351 Mark
Ophthalmic, maxillary and Mandibular nerves are branches of ____________ cranial nerve.
  • A
    Vestibulohochlear
  • Trigeminal
  • C
    Glossopbaryngeal
  • D
    Facial
Answer
Correct option: B.
Trigeminal
B
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MCQ 1361 Mark
The impulse for voluntary muscles for forced breathing starts in ____________.
  • A
    Medulla oblongata
  • B
    Vagus nerve
  • Cerebrum
  • D
    Cerebellum
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cerebrum
C
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MCQ 1371 Mark
Which one of the following has the smallest diameter?
  • A
    Trachea
  • Respiratory bronchioles
  • C
    Right primary bronchus
  • D
    Secondary bronchi
Answer
Correct option: B.
Respiratory bronchioles
B
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MCQ 1381 Mark
Sphygmomanometer is used to ____________.
  • A
    Find the amount of blood pumped by heart
  • B
    Check percentage of blockage in coronary artery
  • C
    Detect amount of oxygen in blood
  • To measure blood pressure
Answer
Correct option: D.
To measure blood pressure
D
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MCQ 1391 Mark
The correct match of blood vessel, its connection and $O_2$ content is $.......$
  • A
    A$-$coronary artery $–$ b$-$Left ventricle $–$ c$-$Low $O_2$​​​​​​​
  • B
    Superior venacave $–$ Left atrium $–$ Low $O_2$​​​​​​​
  • Coronary sinus $–$ Right atrium $–$ Low $O_2$​​​​​​​
  • D
    Systemic aorta $–$ Right ventricle $–$ High $O_2$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: C.
Coronary sinus $–$ Right atrium $–$ Low $O_2$​​​​​​​
Coronary sinus $–$ Right atrium $–$ Low $O_2$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 1401 Mark
Select the correct match.

Lymphocyte : antibodies :: Basophil : ____________.

  • Heparin
  • B
    Globulin
  • C
    Fibrin
  • D
    Anti-histamine
Answer
Correct option: A.
Heparin
A
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MCQ 1411 Mark
Formation of a to b is carried out in the presence of $Ca^{++}$ions during clotting.Select the $\text{CORRECT}$ option for $a$ and $b$
  • A
    $a -$ fibrin; $b -$ fibrinogen
  • B
    $a -$ thromboplastin; $b -$ prothrombin
  • $a -$ prothrombin; $b -$ thrombin
  • D
    $a -$ prothrombinase; $b -$ thrombin
Answer
Correct option: C.
$a -$ prothrombin; $b -$ thrombin
$a -$ prothrombin; $b -$ thrombin
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MCQ 1421 Mark
Which one of the following is NOT an extrinsic factor in the development of plants?
  • Hormonal
  • B
    Temperature
  • C
    Oxygen
  • D
    Water
Answer
Correct option: A.
Hormonal
A
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MCQ 1431 Mark
Which hormone is produced mostly in all parts of a plant?
  • Ethylene
  • B
    $GA_3$
  • C
    Cytokinins
  • D
    $\text{NAA}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
Ethylene
Ethylene
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MCQ 1441 Mark
Which phytohormone is useful for formation of interfascicular cambium during secondary growth of plants?
  • Cytokinins
  • B
    Ethylene
  • C
    Gibberelling
  • D
    Auxin
Answer
Correct option: A.
Cytokinins
A
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MCQ 1451 Mark
Which phytohormones is useful for leaf expansion in leafy vegetable?
  • Gibberellins
  • B
    Ethylene
  • C
    Auxins
  • D
    Cytokinins
Answer
Correct option: A.
Gibberellins
A
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MCQ 1461 Mark
The diffusion pressure of pure water is theoretically ____________ atm.
  • A
    1336
  • 1236
  • C
    1036
  • D
    1136
Answer
Correct option: B.
1236
B
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MCQ 1471 Mark
Find the physical process NOT involved in absorption of water in plants.
  • A
    Diffusion
  • Translocation
  • C
    Osmosis
  • D
    Imbibition
Answer
Correct option: B.
Translocation
B
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MCQ 1481 Mark
Oozing of sap from the cut end of herbaceous plants is due to ____________.
  • A
    Imbibition
  • B
    Transpiration pull
  • C
    Guttation
  • Root pressure
Answer
Correct option: D.
Root pressure
D
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MCQ 1491 Mark
The tubular, colorless delicate prolongations of epidennal cells are seen in which region of root in plants?
  • A
    Maturation
  • B
    Cell elongation
  • C
    Cell division
  • Absorption
Answer
Correct option: D.
Absorption
D
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MCQ 1501 Mark
Water which is held very tightly around soil particles by adhesive forces is called ____________water.
  • A
    Combined
  • B
    Capillary
  • C
    Gravitational
  • Hygroscopic
Answer
Correct option: D.
Hygroscopic
D
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MCQ 1511 Mark
Select the CORRECT match.
  • Wings of butterflies and wings of birds - analogous organs.
  • B
    Wing of pterodactyl and wing of the honey bee - homologous organs
  • C
    The forelimb of frog and wings of insects - homologous organs
  • D
    Wings of birds and flippers of whale - analogous organs.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Wings of butterflies and wings of birds - analogous organs.
A
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MCQ 1521 Mark
Ethological isolation is due to differences in ______
  • Mating behavior
  • B
    Habitat
  • C
    Structure of reproductive organs
  • D
    Time of sexual maturity
Answer
Correct option: A.
Mating behavior
A
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MCQ 1531 Mark
The long, prehensile tail of an arboreal animal is an adaptation for ______
  • Balancing
  • B
    Capturing prey
  • C
    Running
  • D
    Finding mate
Answer
Correct option: A.
Balancing
A
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MCQ 1541 Mark
Select the mismatched pair. 
  • Lemur - Limbs with adhesive pads, long hind limbs with elongated tarsals.
  • B
    Archaeopteryx - Longtail supported by caudal vertebrae, feathery exoskeleton.
  • C
    Human beings - Orthognathus face, dental arch rounded parabola.
  • D
    Gorilla - Slanting forehead, narrow and elongated pelvic girdle.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Lemur - Limbs with adhesive pads, long hind limbs with elongated tarsals.
A
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MCQ 1551 Mark
Which of the following fossil in the evolution of man has maximum cranial capacity?
  • A
    Neanderthal man
  • Cro magnon man
  • C
    Java man
  • D
    Peking man
Answer
Correct option: B.
Cro magnon man
B
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MCQ 1561 Mark
The enzyme initiating the formation of mRNA is ______
  • A
    DNA polymerase
  • B
    Primase
  • RNA polymerase
  • D
    Peptidase
Answer
Correct option: C.
RNA polymerase
C
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MCQ 1571 Mark
Hershey and Chase proved that genetic material is DNA, by using the organism ______
  • A
    Mice
  • B
    Agrobacterium tumafacines
  • Bacteriphage
  • D
    Yeast
Answer
Correct option: C.
Bacteriphage
C
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MCQ 1581 Mark
When the DNA molecule appears like inverted Y, it is ______
  • Replicating
  • B
    translocation
  • C
    denaturing
  • D
    translating
Answer
Correct option: A.
Replicating
A
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MCQ 1591 Mark
The length of DNA segment having 44 base pairs is ______
  • 149.9 A°
  • B
    149.2 A°
  • C
    149.3 A°
  • D
    149.4 A°
Answer
Correct option: A.
149.9 A°
A
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MCQ 1601 Mark
Select the INCORRECT statement - ______ 
  • A
    Pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and water by mitochondria
  • B
    Golgi apparatus secretes Glycoproteins and Glycolipids
  • C
    Plastids are semi-autonomous organelles
  • Ribosomes are responsible for cellular and extracellular digestion.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Ribosomes are responsible for cellular and extracellular digestion.
D
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MCQ 1611 Mark
Which one of the following can form a nucleotide of DNA?
  • A
    Uracil+ ribose +phosphate
  • Adenine+ Deoxyribose +phosphate
  • C
    Thymine+ ribose +phosphate
  • D
    Uracil + Deoxyribose +phosphate
Answer
Correct option: B.
Adenine+ Deoxyribose +phosphate
B
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MCQ 1621 Mark
How many different phenotypes are produced by the mulattoes in the $F_2$ generation?
  • Seven
  • B
    Three
  • C
    Four
  • D
    Two
Answer
Correct option: A.
Seven
Seven
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MCQ 1631 Mark
Findings of Gregor Mendel were rediscovered by the following scientists EXCEPT for ______
  • A
    Hugo de Vries
  • B
    Karl Corren
  • Reginald Punnett
  • D
    Erich Tschermark
Answer
Correct option: C.
Reginald Punnett
C
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MCQ 1651 Mark
In heterozygous condition, both the alleles are expressed in ______ 
  • AB blood group
  • B
    Diabetes
  • C
    Colour blindness
  • D
    Haemophilia
Answer
Correct option: A.
AB blood group
A
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MCQ 1661 Mark
Which one of the following statements is correct?
  • A
    Allele $I^A$ is dominant over $I^B$
  • Allele $I^A$ and $I^B$ are co$-$dominant
  • C
    Allele $I^B$ is dominant over $I^A$
  • D
    Allele i is dominant over both $I^A$ and $I^B$
Answer
Correct option: B.
Allele $I^A$ and $I^B$ are co$-$dominant
Allele $I^A$ and $I^B$ are co$-$dominant
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MCQ 1671 Mark
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of garden pea plants?
  • A
    They are self-pollinating.
  • B
    They show many varieties with contrasting characters.
  • C
    They are annual plants.
  • They show many intermediate characters.
Answer
Correct option: D.
They show many intermediate characters.
D
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MCQ 1681 Mark
Which of the parents with the following blood groups CANNOT have a child with blood group A?
  • A
    AB and A (heterozygous)
  • B
    O and AB
  • C
    A and B (heterozygous)
  • O and B
Answer
Correct option: D.
O and B
D
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MCQ 1691 Mark
ln the reproductive system of a male human being, the ejaculatory ducts open into ________.
  • A
    Spongile urethra
  • Prostatic urethra
  • C
    Penile urethra
  • D
    Membranous urethra
Answer
Correct option: B.
Prostatic urethra
B
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MCQ 1701 Mark
In human beings, the largest cell formed during Oogenesis is $....$
  • Secondary oocyte
  • B
    Primordial cell
  • C
    Oogonium
  • D
    $1^{st}$ polar body
Answer
Correct option: A.
Secondary oocyte
Secondary oocyte
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MCQ 1711 Mark
Which of the following is ectodermal in origin?
(i)Heart
(ii)Sweat glands
(iii)Adrenal medulla
(iv)Middle ear
(v)Urinary bladder
(vi)Dermis of skin
  • A
    iii, iv and v
  • B
    i and ii
  • ii and iii
  • D
    i, iv and v
Answer
Correct option: C.
ii and iii
C
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MCQ 1721 Mark
Sperms undergo the following changes in the epididymis EXCEPT ______
  • A
    Increased motility
  • B
    Capacity of fertilization
  • C
    Physiological maturation
  • Spermiogenesis
Answer
Correct option: D.
Spermiogenesis
D
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MCQ 1731 Mark
Find out the CORRECT sequence of spermatogenesis.
  • A
    Spermatogonia → Secondary spermatocytes → Primary spermatocytes → Spermatids → Sperms
  • Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocytes → Secondary spermatocytes → Spermatids → Sperms
  • C
    Spermatids → Spennatogonia → Primary spermatocytes → Secondary spermatocytes → Sperms
  • D
    Spermatogonia → Spennatids → Primary spermatocytes → Secondary spermatocytes → Sperms
Answer
Correct option: B.
Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocytes → Secondary spermatocytes → Spermatids → Sperms
B
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MCQ 1741 Mark
Mark the CORRECT sequence of structures in the breast from the inner to the outer side.
  • A
    Lactiferous Sinuses → Lactiferous ducts → Lactiferous glands
  • Lactiferous glands → Lactiferous Sinuses → Lactiferous ducts
  • C
    Lactiferous glands → Lactiferous ducts → Lactiferous Sinuses
  • D
    Lactiferous ducts → Lactiferous Sinuses → Lactiferous glands
Answer
Correct option: B.
Lactiferous glands → Lactiferous Sinuses → Lactiferous ducts
B
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MCQ 1751 Mark
All but one, propagate vegetatively by foliar bud.
  • Begonia
  • B
    Bryophyllum
  • C
    Kalanchoe
  • D
    Oxalis
Answer
Correct option: A.
Begonia
A
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MCQ 1761 Mark
In dicots, the pollen grains are usually ______ 
  • A
    Tetraporate
  • B
    TriporaSte
  • Biporte
  • D
    Uniporte
Answer
Correct option: C.
Biporte
C
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MCQ 1771 Mark
Which one of the following plants do NOT propagate by epiphyllous buds?
  • A
    Begonia
  • Bryophyllum
  • C
    Kalanchoe
  • D
    Oxalis
Answer
Correct option: B.
Bryophyllum
B
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MCQ 1781 Mark
Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a)Sunflower(i)Protogyny
(b)Castor(ii)Self-incompatibility
(c)Michelia(iii)Protandry
(d)Orchid(iv)Unisexuality
  • A
    (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv ; (d) - (iii)
  • B
    (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
  • (a) - (iii) ; (b) - (ii); (c) - (i) ; (d) - (iv)
  • D
    (a) - (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
Answer
Correct option: C.
(a) - (iii) ; (b) - (ii); (c) - (i) ; (d) - (iv)
C
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MCQ 1791 Mark
Generally, the embryo sac in angiosperms is ______
  • Monosporic, endosporic, 7 celled, and 8 nucleated
  • B
    Monosporic, exosporic, 8 celled, and 7 nucleated
  • C
    Bisporic, exosporic, 7 celled, and 8 nucleated
  • D
    Bisporic, endosporic, 8 celled, and 7 nucleated
Answer
Correct option: A.
Monosporic, endosporic, 7 celled, and 8 nucleated
A
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MCQ 1801 Mark
During the development of the embryo sac, a mega pore mother cell undergoes ______ meiosis and mitosis respectively.
  • A
    3, 1
  • B
    1, 4
  • C
    4, 1
  • 1, 3
Answer
Correct option: D.
1, 3
D
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MCQ 1811 Mark
Which of the following statement is NOT true about Loop of Henle?
  • It secretes Renin to control blood pressure
  • B
    Ascending limb is not permeable to water
  • C
    It is present in the medulla
  • D
    It is meant for the concentration of urine
Answer
Correct option: A.
It secretes Renin to control blood pressure
A
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MCQ 1821 Mark
Match the parts of the nephron in column I with their function in column II.
Column I Column II
(a)Loop of Henle(i)Ultrafiltration
(b)Proximal convoluted tubule(ii)Secretion of hydrogen ions
(c)Distal convoluted tubule(iii)Reabsorption of glucose
(d)Bowman's capsule(iv)Concentration of urine
  • A
    (a) - (iii)
  • (b) - (ii)
  • C
    (d) - (iv)
  • D
    (c) - (i)
Answer
Correct option: B.
(b) - (ii)
B
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MCQ 1831 Mark
All of the following animals are uricotelic EXCEPT ______ 
  • Scorpion
  • B
    Crow
  • C
    Mosquito
  • D
    Cobra
Answer
Correct option: A.
Scorpion
A
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MCQ 1841 Mark
The endocrine nature of the kidney is indicated by the secretion of ______
  • A
    Aldosterone
  • B
    Vasopressin
  • Calcitriol
  • D
    Glucagon
Answer
Correct option: C.
Calcitriol
C
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MCQ 1851 Mark
$Na^+$​​​​​​​ excretion in the urine is reduced by secretion of $.....$
  • A
    erythropoietin
  • B
    $\text{ANF}$
  • C
    calcitonin
  • aldosterone
Answer
Correct option: D.
aldosterone
aldosterone
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MCQ 1861 Mark
The salivary gland present in front of the ear is called the ______ gland. 
  • A
    Sub-lingual
  • Parotid
  • C
    Sub-mandibular
  • D
    Lacrymal
Answer
Correct option: B.
Parotid
B
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MCQ 1881 Mark
Kwashiorkor is caused due to prolonged deficiency mainly of ______ in the diet.
  • A
    Vitamins and minerals
  • B
    Fats
  • C
    Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
Answer
Correct option: D.
Proteins
D
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MCQ 1891 Mark
Chylomicrons are ______ 
  • A
    Complex proteins
  • B
    Emulsified fats
  • Protein coated fat globules
  • D
    Fatty acid droplets
Answer
Correct option: C.
Protein coated fat globules
C
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MCQ 1901 Mark
Which of the following cells digest and destroy old R.B.Cs from blood?
  • A
    Serous cells of salivary glands
  • Kupffer cells of the liver
  • C
    Acini cells of the pancreas
  • D
    β cells of islets of Langerhans
Answer
Correct option: B.
Kupffer cells of the liver
B
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MCQ 1911 Mark
Respiration is ______ process.
  • A
    An anabolic, energy-releasing
  • B
    A catabolic, energy conserving
  • C
    An energy-conserving, anabolic
  • An energy releasing, amphibolic
Answer
Correct option: D.
An energy releasing, amphibolic
D
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MCQ 1921 Mark
Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation Krebs cycle?
  • A
    Fumarate → Malate
  • α ketoglutarate → Succinyl Co A 
  • C
    !so-citrate → Oxalosuccinate
  • D
    Oxalosuccinate → α ketoglutarate
Answer
Correct option: B.
α ketoglutarate → Succinyl Co A 
B
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MCQ 1931 Mark
During glycolysis, cleavage of fructose 1, 6-diphosphate occurs in presence of enzyme ______
  • A
    Phosphoglycero mutase
  • Aldolase
  • C
    Hexokinase
  • D
    Phosphoglycero kinase
Answer
Correct option: B.
Aldolase
B
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MCQ 1941 Mark
The enzymes needed for Kreb's cycle are located in ______ 
  • A
    The outer membrane of mitochondria
  • B
    Cytoplasm of cell
  • Matrix of mitochondria
  • D
    Oxysomes of mitochondria
Answer
Correct option: C.
Matrix of mitochondria
C
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MCQ 1951 Mark
The coenzyme which forms a component of the electron transport chain and presents on the inner mitochondrial membrane is ______ 
  • Flavoprotein
  • B
    Dipeptidase
  • C
    Transaminase
  • D
    Pyruvate kinase
Answer
Correct option: A.
Flavoprotein
A
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MCQ 1961 Mark
Which one of the following is NOT soluble in water?
  • A
    Galactose
  • B
    Glucose
  • C
    Fructose
  • Cellulose
Answer
Correct option: D.
Cellulose
D
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MCQ 1971 Mark
The rate of enzyme reactions rises with the increase in substrate concentration. But it does NOT increase beyond a certain concentration because ______ 
  • Free enzyme molecules to bind with the substrate are not available.
  • B
    The substrate molecules are available.
  • C
    The enzymes undergo denaturation.
  • D
    The reaction has to maintain a minimum velocity.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Free enzyme molecules to bind with the substrate are not available.
A
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MCQ 1981 Mark
A protein is a sequence of amino acids. The end of the polypeptide chain of $-NH_2$ end and at $-COOH$ end are respectively called $........$
  • A
    $C -$ terminal and $N -$ terminal
  • B
    $\beta -$ terminal and $\alpha -$ terminal
  • C
    $\alpha -$ terminal and $\beta -$ terminal
  • $N -$ terminal and $C -$ terminal
Answer
Correct option: D.
$N -$ terminal and $C -$ terminal
$N -$ terminal and $C -$ terminal
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MCQ 1991 Mark
The most abundant cellular protein is ______.
  • A
    Dynein
  • Actin
  • C
    Keratin
  • D
    Tubulin
Answer
Correct option: B.
Actin
B
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MCQ 2001 Mark
The number of proteins in an average human cell is over ______.
  • A
    10000
  • 100000
  • C
    25000
  • D
    50000
Answer
Correct option: B.
100000
B
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