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MCQ

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200 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 11 Mark
In an npn transistor, the collector current is 24 mA. If 80% of electrons reach collector, its base current in mA is ______.
  • A
    0.54 s
  • 8.64 s
  • C
    36
  • D
    1.08 s
Answer
Correct option: B.
8.64 s
B
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MCQ 21 Mark
In switching circuit, transistor is in $O N$ state. Values of $I_C$ and $I_B$ are 5.2 mA and $10 \mu \mathrm{A}$ respectively and value of $R_C$ is 1 $\mathrm{k} \Omega$. If $\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CC}}$ is at 5.5 V , then $\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}$ is _____.
  • A
    0.1 V
  • 0.3 V
  • C
    0.0 V
  • D
    0.2 V
Answer
Correct option: B.
0.3 V
B
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MCQ 31 Mark
The diagram shows the path of four `alpha` - particles of the same energy being scattered by the nucleus of an atom simultaneously. Which of these are/is not physically possible?

Image

  • A
    2 and 3
  • 4 only
  • C
    3 and 4
  • D
    1 and 4
Answer
Correct option: B.
4 only
B
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MCQ 41 Mark
The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in Bohr's atom is R. The radius of the third orbit will be ______
  • A
    9 R
  • B
    3 R
  • 2.25 R
  • D
    `"R"/3`
Answer
Correct option: C.
2.25 R
C
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MCQ 51 Mark
A metal surface is illuminated by photons of energy 5 eV and 2.5 eV respectively. The ratio of their wavelengths is ____________.
  • A
    2 : 1
  • B
    1 : 3
  • C
    1 : 4
  • 1 : 2
Answer
Correct option: D.
1 : 2
D
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MCQ 61 Mark
Threshold frequency for a metal is $10^{15} \mathrm{~Hz}$. Light of $\lambda=4000 \mathring A$ falls on its surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • No photoelectric emission takes place.
  • B
    Photoelectrons come out with $10^5 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$ speed.
  • C
    Photoelectrons come out with zero speed.
  • D
    Photoelectrons come out with $10^3 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$ speed.
Answer
Correct option: A.
No photoelectric emission takes place.
A
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MCQ 71 Mark
In a purely capacitive circuit, the e.m.f. ____________.
  • A
    is in phase with current
  • B
    lags behind the current by `pi^c`
  • lags behind the current by `pi`/2
  • D
    leads the current by `pi`/2
Answer
Correct option: C.
lags behind the current by `pi`/2
C
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MCQ 81 Mark
A hot wire ammeter reads 20 A in AC. circuit. The peak value of the current is ______
  • A
    `20/sqrt2`A
  • B
    `20/pi`A
  • C
    5π A
  • `20sqrt2`A
Answer
Correct option: D.
`20sqrt2`A
D
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MCQ 91 Mark
Two coils P and Q are kept near each other. When no current flows through coil P and current increases in coil Q at the rate 10 A/s, the e.m.f. in coil P is 20 mV. When coil Q carries no current and current of 1.6 A flows through coil P, the magnetic flux linked with the coil Q is ____________.
  • A
    2.2 mWb
  • B
    4.9 mWb
  • C
    1.4 mWb
  • 3.2 mWb
Answer
Correct option: D.
3.2 mWb
D
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MCQ 101 Mark
A conducting square loop of side l and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of its side. A magnetic induction B constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The current induced in the loop is ______.
  • zero
  • B
    `(1"B"l"v")/"R" ` anticlockwise
  • C
    `("B"l"v")/"R" ` clockwise
  • D
    `("B"l"v")/"R" ` anticlockwise
Answer
Correct option: A.
zero
A
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MCQ 111 Mark
The magnetic susceptibility is given by ______
  • A
    χ = `1/"H"`
  • χ = `"M"_"z"/"H"`
  • C
    χ = `"B"/"H"`
  • D
    χ = `"M"_"net"/"V"`
Answer
Correct option: B.
χ = `"M"_"z"/"H"`
B
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MCQ 121 Mark
If $\mathrm{M}_0$ and $\mathrm{L}_0$ denote the orbital angular moment and the angular momentum of the electron due to its orbital motion, then the gyromagnetic ratio is given by ______
  • A
    $\sqrt{(M_0/L_0)}$
  • $M_0/L_0$
  • C
    $L_0/M_0$
  • D
    $L_0M_0$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$M_0/L_0$
B
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MCQ 131 Mark
If in a moving coil galvanometer, a current I produces a deflection `theta,` then ____________.
  • A
    `"I" prop theta^2`
  • `"I" prop theta`
  • C
    `"I" prop sqrttheta`
  • D
    `"I" prop "tan" theta`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`"I" prop theta`
B
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MCQ 141 Mark
A charged particle is released from rest in a region of steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields which are parallel to each other. The particle will move in a ____________.
  • straight line
  • B
    circle
  • C
    helix
  • D
    cycloid
Answer
Correct option: A.
straight line
A
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MCQ 151 Mark
Voltmeter reading upto 150 volts having resistance of 300 `Omega` can be converted into an ammeter of 8 A range by connecting ____________.
  • A
    10 `Omega` in series
  • B
    20 `Omega` in series
  • 20 `Omega` in parallel
  • D
    10 `Omega` in parallel
Answer
Correct option: C.
20 `Omega` in parallel
C
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MCQ 161 Mark
In the metre bridge experiment shown in the figure, the balance length AC corresponding to null deflection of the galvanometer is x. What would be the balance length if the radius of the wire AB is doubled?

Image

  • x
  • B
    `"x"/2`
  • C
    2x
  • D
    4x
Answer
Correct option: A.
x
A
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MCQ 171 Mark
Two metal plates are separated by 2 cm. The potentials of the plates are -10 V and + 30 V. The electric field between the two plates is ______.
  • A
    1000 V/m
  • B
    500 V/m
  • 2000 V/m
  • D
    3000 V/m
Answer
Correct option: C.
2000 V/m
C
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MCQ 181 Mark
A capacitor of capacitance C charged by an amount Q is connected in parallel with an uncharged capacitor of capacitance 2C. The final charges on the capacitors are ____________.
  • `"Q"/3, (2"Q")/3`
  • B
    `"Q"/2, "Q"/2`
  • C
    `"Q"/4, (3"Q")/4`
  • D
    `"Q"/5, (4"Q")/5`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`"Q"/3, (2"Q")/3`
A
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MCQ 191 Mark
A 10 µF capacitor is fully charged across a 15 V battery. It is then disconnected from the battery and connected to an uncharged capacitor. If the voltage across the capacitor becomes 5 V then the capacitance of the uncharged capacitor will be ____________.
  • 20 µF
  • B
    150 µF
  • C
    5 µF
  • D
    60 µF
Answer
Correct option: A.
20 µF
A
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MCQ 201 Mark
In a single slit diffraction pattern, which of the following is incorrect for fringe pattern?
  • A
    Intensities of the secondary maxima are much less than the intensity of the central maxima.
  • For a given wavelength, the width of the diffraction pattern is directly proportional to the slit width.
  • C
    Width of the central maximum is twice the width of the secondary maxima or minima.
  • D
    All secondary maxima and minima are of the same width.
Answer
Correct option: B.
For a given wavelength, the width of the diffraction pattern is directly proportional to the slit width.
B
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MCQ 211 Mark
In a Young's experiment, two coherent sources are placed 0.60 mm apart and the fringes are observed one metre away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from the central fringe, the wavelength of monochromatic light used would be ____________.
  • A
    $60 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~cm}$
  • B
    $4 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~cm}$
  • C
    $6 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~cm}$
  • $4 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~cm}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$4 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~cm}$
D
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MCQ 221 Mark
In a Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity at a point where the path difference is $\lambda/3$ ($\lambda$ being the wavelength of the light used) is I. If $I_0$ denotes the maximum intensity, then $I/I_0$ is equal to ______.
  • A
    $3/4$
  • B
    $\sqrt {3/2}$
  • C
    $1/ \sqrt 2$
  • $1/4$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$1/4$
D. $1/4$
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MCQ 231 Mark
An open pipe of certain length produces fundamental frequency $f_1$. A closed pipe of some other length produces fundamental .frequency $f_2$. When the two are joined to form a longer close tube, its fundamental frequency will be ____________.
  • A
    $(f_1f_2)/(f_1 + f_2)$
  • B
    $(f_1f_2)/(2f_1 + f_2)$
  • $(f_1f_2)/(f_1 + 2f_2)$
  • D
    $(2f_1f_2)/(f_1 + f_2)$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$(f_1f_2)/(f_1 + 2f_2)$
C. $(f_1f_2)/(f_1 + 2f_2)$
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MCQ 241 Mark
lf the length of a stretched string is shortened by 40 % and the tension is increased by 44%, then the ratio of the final and initial fundamental frequencies are ____________.
  • A
    4 : 3
  • 2 : 1
  • C
    1 : 3
  • D
    3 : 4
Answer
Correct option: B.
2 : 1
B
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MCQ 251 Mark
When a simple harmonic progressive wave is travelling through a medium, then each succeeding particle ______
  • A
    leads in the phase before the preceding particle.
  • B
    leads in phase by 180°.
  • lags in phase behind the preceding particle.
  • D
    lags in phase by 180°.
Answer
Correct option: C.
lags in phase behind the preceding particle.
C
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MCQ 261 Mark
The length of a simple pendulum is increased by 44%. The percentage change in its time period is ______
  • 20%
  • B
    44%
  • C
    10%
  • D
    40%
Answer
Correct option: A.
20%
A
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MCQ 271 Mark
Two waves having the same amplitude and frequency overlap near a point. The ratio of the intensities when the two waves arrive in phase to that when they arrive 90° out of phase is ______
  • A
    4 : 1
  • B
    `sqrt2 : 1`
  • 2 : 1
  • D
    1 : 1
Answer
Correct option: C.
2 : 1
C
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MCQ 281 Mark
The equation of S.H.M. of a particle of amplitude 4 cm performing 150 oscillations per minute starting with an initial phase 30° is ____________.
  • A
    `"x" = 4 "sin" (2 pi"t"+ pi//3)`
  • B
    `"x" = 4 "sin" (5 pi"t"+ pi//3)`
  • `"x" = 4 "sin" (5 pi"t"+ pi//6)`
  • D
    `"x" = 4 "sin" (2 pi"t"+ pi//6)`
Answer
Correct option: C.
`"x" = 4 "sin" (5 pi"t"+ pi//6)`
C
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MCQ 291 Mark
One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure,

Image

The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is ____________.

  • A
    - 20 k J
  • B
    20 J
  • - 35 k J
  • D
    35 k J
Answer
Correct option: C.
- 35 k J
C
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MCQ 301 Mark
In which of the following processes, beat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?
  • A
    isobaric
  • adiabatic
  • C
    isothermal
  • D
    isochoric
Answer
Correct option: B.
adiabatic
B
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MCQ 311 Mark
Two samples A and B, of a gas at the same initial temperature and pressure are compressed from volume V to V/2; A isothermally and B adiabatically. The final pressure of A will be ______.
  • less than that of B.
  • B
    greater than that of B.
  • C
    twice that of B.
  • D
    equal to that of B.
Answer
Correct option: A.
less than that of B.
A
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MCQ 321 Mark
A blackbody radiates heat at temperatures $T_1$ and $T_2$ $\left(T_2>T_1\right)$. The frequency corresponding to maximum energy is ____________.
  • A
    independent of $T_1$, and $T_2$
  • B
    more at $T_1$
  • C
    equal for $T_1$ and $T_2$
  • more at $T_2$
Answer
Correct option: D.
more at $T_2$
D
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MCQ 331 Mark
At same temperature and pressure of an ideal gas, ____________.
  • A
    the molar specific heat at constant volume is the same for all gases.
  • B
    the molar specific heat at constant pressure is the same for all gases.
  • C
    the ratio of the molar specific heats at constant volume and at constant pressure is the same for all gases.
  • the difference between the molar specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume is the same for all gases.
Answer
Correct option: D.
the difference between the molar specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume is the same for all gases.
D
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MCQ 341 Mark
If universal gas constant is 8.3 joule/mole-Kand the Avogadro's number is $6 \times 10^{23}$, then mean kinetic energy of the oxygen molecules at $427^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$ will be ______.
  • $1452 \times 10^{-23}$ joule
  • B
    $2490 \times 10^{-23}$ joule
  • C
    $1245 \times 10^{-23}$ joule
  • D
    $415 \times 10^{-23}$ joule
Answer
Correct option: A.
$1452 \times 10^{-23}$ joule
A
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MCQ 351 Mark
Choose the CORRECT statement.
  • A
    The viscosity of liquid and gases increases with temperature.
  • B
    The viscosity of liquid and gases decreases with temperature.
  • The viscosity of liquid decreases with temperature while that of gas increases with temperature.
  • D
    The viscosity of liquid increases with temperature while that of gas decreases with temperature.
Answer
Correct option: C.
The viscosity of liquid decreases with temperature while that of gas increases with temperature.
C
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MCQ 361 Mark
Water rises to a height of 10 cm in a capillary tube and mercury falls to a depth of 3.5 cm in the same capillary tube. The density of mercury is 13.6 gm/cc and its angle of contact is 135°, also density of water is 1 gm/cc and its angle of contact is 0°, then the ratio of surface tension of the two liquid is ______.

(cos 135° = 0.7)

  • A
    5: 27
  • B
    1: 5
  • 5: 34
  • D
    1: 14
Answer
Correct option: C.
5: 34
C
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MCQ 371 Mark
A soap bubble of diameter 4 mm is formed in air. The surface tension of liquid is 15 dyne/cm. The excess pressw·e inside the soap bubble is______.
  • A
    400 dyne $/ \mathrm{cm}^2$
  • B
    $3 xx 10^{-3} / \mathrm{cm}^2$
  • 300 dyne $/ \mathrm{cm}^2$
  • D
    150 dyne $/ \mathrm{cm}^2$
Answer
Correct option: C.
300 dyne $/ \mathrm{cm}^2$
C
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MCQ 381 Mark
If the angular momentum of an electron is `vec"J"` then the magnitude of the magnetic moment will be ____________.
  • A
    `(2"m")/"eJ"`
  • B
    `"eJ"/"m"`
  • `"eJ"/(2"m")`
  • D
    eJ 2m
Answer
Correct option: C.
`"eJ"/(2"m")`
C
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MCQ 391 Mark
Angular momentum of the earth revolving around the sun is proportional to $r^n$ , where r is the distance between the earth and the sun. Value of n is ____________.
  • A
    3/2
  • B
    1
  • 2
  • D
    1/2
Answer
Correct option: C.
2
C
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MCQ 401 Mark
If $I_1$ is the moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis perpendicular to its length and passing through its centre of mass and $I_2$ is the moment of inertia of the ring formed by bending the rod about an axis perpendicular to the plane, the ratio of $I_1$ and $I_2$ is ____________.
  • A
    $\pi : 4$
  • B
    3 : 5
  • C
    1 : 1
  • $\pi^2 : 3$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\pi^2 : 3$
D. $\pi^2 : 3$
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MCQ 411 Mark
In a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor impurity produces an energy level ______
  • just above the valence band.
  • B
    just below the conduction band.
  • C
    just above the conduction band.
  • D
    just below the valence band.
Answer
Correct option: A.
just above the valence band.
A
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MCQ 421 Mark
Two-point charges of + 0.2 µµC and -0.2 µµC are separated by 1 o8 m. What is the value of the electric field at an axial point at a distance of 0.1 m from their mid-point?
  • A
    $3.2 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{NC}^{-1}$
  • $3.6 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{NC}^{-1}$
  • C
    $3.4 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{NC}^{-1}$
  • D
    $3.9 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{NC}^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$3.6 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{NC}^{-1}$
B
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MCQ 431 Mark
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
  • A
    A virtual, erect, magnified image can be formed using a concave mirror.
  • B
    A virtual, erect, same sized image can be obtained using a plane mirror.
  • C
    The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always less than one.
  • A real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using a convex mirror.
Answer
Correct option: D.
A real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using a convex mirror.
D
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MCQ 441 Mark
The ratio of densities of nitrogen and oxygen is 14:16. The temperature at which the speed of sound in nitrogen will be the same as that in oxygen at 79°C is ______
  • A
    48°C
  • B
    65°C
  • 35°C
  • D
    14°C
Answer
Correct option: C.
35°C
C
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MCQ 451 Mark
When the kinetic energy of an electron is increased, the wavelength of the associated wave will ______.
  • A
    increase
  • B
    become twice
  • decrease
  • D
    remain same
Answer
Correct option: C.
decrease
C
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MCQ 461 Mark
A metre scale made of a metal reads accurately at 25 °C. Suppose in an experiment an accuracy of 0.12 mm in 1 m is required, the range of temperature in which the experiment can be performed with this metre scale is ______.(coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is `20 xx 10^-6 / (°"C")`
  • 19 °C to 31 °C
  • B
    18 °C to 32 °C
  • C
    18 °C to 25 ° C
  • D
    25 °C to 32 °C
Answer
Correct option: A.
19 °C to 31 °C
A
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MCQ 471 Mark
A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at the height of 6R above the surface of earth. R being radius of earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the surface of earth is ____________.
  • A
    6 hour
  • B
    `6/sqrt2` hour
  • `6 sqrt2` hour
  • D
    10 hour
Answer
Correct option: C.
`6 sqrt2` hour
C
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MCQ 481 Mark
If mean radius of earth is R, its angular velocity is ro and the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth is g, then the cube of the radius of the orbit of satellite will be ____________.
  • A
    `("R"^2"g")/omega`
  • B
    `("R"^2omega^2)/"g"`
  • C
    `("Rg")/omega^2`
  • `("R"^2"g")/omega^2`
Answer
Correct option: D.
`("R"^2"g")/omega^2`
D
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MCQ 491 Mark
Two particles of mass $\mathrm{m}_1$ and $\mathrm{m}_2$, approach each other due to their mutual gravitational attraction only. Then ______.
  • A
    acceleration of the particle of mass $\mathrm{m}_1$ is proportional to $\mathrm{m}_1$.
  • B
    acceleration of the particle of mass $\mathrm{m}_1$ is inversely proportional to $\mathrm{m}_1$
  • C
    accelerations of both the particles are equal.
  • acceleration of the particle of mass $\mathrm{m}_1$ is proportional to $\mathrm{m}_2$.
Answer
Correct option: D.
acceleration of the particle of mass $\mathrm{m}_1$ is proportional to $\mathrm{m}_2$.
D
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MCQ 511 Mark
Conventionally, the nanometer scale is defined as ____________.
  • 1-100 nm
  • B
    1-5 nm
  • C
    10-1000 nm
  • D
    0.1-10 cm
Answer
Correct option: A.
1-100 nm
A
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MCQ 521 Mark
γ-isomer of BHC is called as ____________.
  • A
    freon-12
  • B
    isoprene
  • gammexane
  • D
    styrene
Answer
Correct option: C.
gammexane
C
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MCQ 531 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT match.
  • A
    Urea formaldehyde resin: Thermosetting polymer
  • B
    Buna-N: Elastomer
  • Bakelite: Thermoplastic polymer
  • D
    Terylene: Fibre
Answer
Correct option: C.
Bakelite: Thermoplastic polymer
C
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MCQ 541 Mark
Cuprammonium rayon and viscose rayon are ____________ polymers.
  • semisynthetic
  • B
    animal
  • C
    plant
  • D
    synthetic
Answer
Correct option: A.
semisynthetic
A
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MCQ 551 Mark
Stachyose is ____________.
  • A
    polysaccharides
  • B
    disaccharides
  • C
    monosaccharides
  • tetrasaccharides
Answer
Correct option: D.
tetrasaccharides
D
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MCQ 561 Mark
Which of the following type of carbohydrates cannot be hydrolyzed?
  • Monosaccharides
  • B
    Disaccharides
  • C
    Oligosaccharides
  • D
    Polysaccharides
Answer
Correct option: A.
Monosaccharides
A
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MCQ 571 Mark
$\ce{X ->[LiAlH4 in ether] Y ->[C2H5Br] Z -> Triethylamine}$

X and Z are ____________ respectively.

  • A
    1-nitropropane and ethylamine
  • B
    ethyl cyanide and diethylamine
  • C
    nitromethane and dimethylamine
  • nitroethane and diethylamine
Answer
Correct option: D.
nitroethane and diethylamine
D
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MCQ 581 Mark
In which of the following pairs, the first compound is more basic than the second compound?
  • $\left(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\right)_2 \mathrm{NH} \text { and }\left(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\right)_3 \mathrm{~N}$
  • B
    $\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{NH}_2$ and $\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{NH}_2$
  • C
    $\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{NH}_2$ and $\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}$
  • D
    $\mathrm{NH}_3$ and $\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{NH}_2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\left(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\right)_2 \mathrm{NH} \text { and }\left(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\right)_3 \mathrm{~N}$
A
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MCQ 591 Mark
Choose the CORRECT increasing order of the acidic strength of carboxylic acids from the following.
  • A

    Image

  • Image
  • C

    Image
  • D

    Image
Answer
Correct option: B.

Image
B
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MCQ 601 Mark
Which of the following acids does NOT contain two carboxyl groups?
  • A
    Malonic acid
  • B
    Succinic acid
  • Valeric acid
  • D
    Adipic acid
Answer
Correct option: C.
Valeric acid
C
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MCQ 611 Mark
Cumene is used in the commercial method for the manufacture of ____________.
  • phenol
  • B
    ethanol
  • C
    dimethyl ether
  • D
    methanol
Answer
Correct option: A.
phenol
A
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MCQ 621 Mark
Which of the following reagents are required in the conversion of phenol to salicylic acid?
  • A
    $\mathrm{HNO}_2, \mathrm{HCl}, \mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$
  • B
    $\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7, \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4$
  • C
    $\mathrm{CHCl}_3+\text { aq. } \mathrm{NaOH}, \mathrm{H}^{+}$
  • $\mathrm{NaOH}, \mathrm{CO}_2, \mathrm{H}^{+}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\mathrm{NaOH}, \mathrm{CO}_2, \mathrm{H}^{+}$
D
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MCQ 631 Mark
Which of the following carbocation is the most stable?
  • A
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{..................}\ce{+}\\
    \ce{CH3 - CH2 - CH - CH2}\\
    \phantom{.....}|\\
    \phantom{.......}\ce{CH3}
    \end{array}$
  • $\begin{array}{cc}
    \ce{+}\phantom{.......}\\
    \ce{CH3 - C - CH2 - CH3}\\
    |\phantom{.......}\\
    \ce{CH3}\phantom{.....}
    \end{array}$
  • C
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{.......}\ce{+}\\
    \ce{CH3 - CH2 - C - CH3}\\
    \phantom{.......}|\\
    \phantom{.......}\ce{H}
    \end{array}$
  • D
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{...}\ce{CH3}\\
    \phantom{......}|\phantom{...}+\phantom{}\\
    \ce{CH3 - C - CH2}\\
    |\\
    \phantom{..}\ce{CH3}
    \end{array}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\begin{array}{cc}
\ce{+}\phantom{.......}\\
\ce{CH3 - C - CH2 - CH3}\\
|\phantom{.......}\\
\ce{CH3}\phantom{.....}
\end{array}$
B
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MCQ 651 Mark
Which would exhibit coordination isomerism?
  • A
    ${\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_3}$
  • B
    ${\left[\mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{en})_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right] \mathrm{Cl}}$
  • C
    ${\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_3}$
  • ${\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4\right]\left[\mathrm{CuCl}_4\right]}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
${\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4\right]\left[\mathrm{CuCl}_4\right]}$
D
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MCQ 661 Mark
The formula of sodium hexanitrocobaltate (III) is, ____________.
  • A
    $\mathrm{Na}_3\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right)_4\right]$
  • $\mathrm{Na}_3\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right)_6\right]$
  • C
    $\mathrm{Na}\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right)_6\right]$
  • D
    $\mathrm{Na}_3\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{ONO})_6\right]$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\mathrm{Na}_3\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right)_6\right]$
B
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MCQ 671 Mark
Which statement(s) is/are CORRECT about applications of lanthanoid metals/ions and their compounds?

(I) The optoelectronics applications use lanthanoid ions as active ions in luminescent materials.

(II) Lanthanoid compounds are used in television tubes.

(III) Lanthanoids are used in hybrid cars, superconductors and permanent magnets.

  • A
    II
  • I, II, III
  • C
    l, II
  • D
    III
Answer
Correct option: B.
I, II, III
B
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MCQ 681 Mark
Which of the following is NOT a mineral of iron?
  • Chalcopyrite
  • B
    Siderite
  • C
    Magnetite
  • D
    Limonite
Answer
Correct option: A.
Chalcopyrite
A
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MCQ 691 Mark
The valence shell electronic configuration of $V^{3+}$ ion is ____________.
  • A
    $3 d^5$
  • B
    $3 d^0$
  • $3 d^2$
  • D
    $3 d^4$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$3 d^2$
C
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MCQ 701 Mark
The number of lone pair of electrons present on central atom in the interhalogen $\mathrm{XX}^{\prime}_3$ molecule:
  • A
    3
  • B
    0
  • 2
  • D
    1
Answer
Correct option: C.
2
C
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MCQ 711 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE about chlorine trifluoride?
  • A
    The oxidation state of Cl atom is +6.
  • B
    It is prepared by reacting chlorine and fluorine in equal volumes.
  • C
    It has square pyramidal structure.
  • The central Cl atom has two lone pairs of electrons.
Answer
Correct option: D.
The central Cl atom has two lone pairs of electrons.
D
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MCQ 721 Mark
The molecular formula of peroxymonosulfuric acid is ____________.
  • $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_5$
  • B
    $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{~S}_2 \mathrm{O}_8$
  • C
    $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{~S}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$
  • D
    $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_5$
A
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MCQ 731 Mark
Which of the following represents the expression for $(3/4)^th$ life of $1^{st}$ order reaction?
  • A
    $2.303/k \times log_10 3$
  • B
    $2.303/k \times log_10 3/4$
  • $2.303/k \times log_10 4$
  • D
    $k/2.303 \times log_10 4/3$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$2.303/k \times log_10 4$
C. $2.303/k \times log_10 4$
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MCQ 741 Mark
If $[\mathrm{A}]_0$ is the initial concentration, then the half life of zero order reaction is ____________.
  • $([A]_0)/(2k)$
  • B
    $k/(2[A]_0)$
  • C
    $0.693/k$
  • D
    $([A]_0)/k$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$([A]_0)/(2k)$
A. $([A]_0)/(2k)$
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MCQ 751 Mark
The following reactions follow zero order kinetics, EXCEPT ____________.
  • A
    decomposition of nitrous oxide in the presence of Pt catalyst
  • B
    decomposition of $\mathrm{NH}_3$ on platinum plate
  • C
    catalytic decomposition of $\mathrm{PH}_3$ on hot tungsten at high pressure
  • decomposition of $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{2(l)}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
decomposition of $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{2(l)}$
D
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MCQ 761 Mark
When electrolysis of aqueous NaCl and molten NaCl are carried out separately, the product formed at anode are ___________ and ____________ respectively.
  • A
    metallic sodium, $\mathrm{Cl}_2$ gas
  • B
    $\mathrm{H}_2$ gas, $\mathrm{Cl}_2$ gas
  • C
    $\mathrm{O}_2$ gas, metallic sodium
  • $\mathrm{Cl}_2$ gas, $\mathrm{Cl}_2$ gas
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\mathrm{Cl}_2$ gas, $\mathrm{Cl}_2$ gas
D
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MCQ 771 Mark
At 25°C, the emf of the following electrochemical cell.

$\ce{Ag_{(s)} | Ag^+ (0.01 M) | | Zn^{2+} {(0.1 M)} | Zn_{(s)}}$ will be:

(Given $\ce{E^0_{cell}}$ = −1.562 V)

  • −1.4732 V
  • B
    +1.432 V
  • C
    −1.4436 V
  • D
    −1.432 V
Answer
Correct option: A.
−1.4732 V
A
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MCQ 781 Mark
The molar conductance of 0.001 M acetic acid is $50 \mathrm{ohm}^{-1} \mathrm{~cm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$. The limiting molar conductance is $250 \mathrm{ohm}^{-1}$ $\mathrm{cm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$. What is its degree of ionization?
  • A
    2
  • 0.2
  • C
    5
  • D
    0.5
Answer
Correct option: B.
0.2
B
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MCQ 791 Mark
For a reversible spontaneous change, ∆S is ____________.
  • $Q/T$
  • B
    RT $\log _e$ K
  • C
    $(∆U)/T$
  • D
    $(P∆V)/T$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$Q/T$
A. $Q/T$
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MCQ 801 Mark
lf, $\ce{C_{(s)} + O2_{(g)} -> CO2_{(g)}}$, ∆H = x .........(i)

$\ce{CO_{(g)} + 1/2O2_{(g)} -> CO2_{(g)}}$, ∆H = y .......(ii)

Then, the heat of formation of CO is:

  • A
    `(("x" - "y"))/2`
  • B
    x + y
  • C
    y − x
  • x − y
Answer
Correct option: D.
x − y
D
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MCQ 811 Mark
A compound that has a high negative heat of formation is normally ____________.
  • A
    difficult to form from its elements and easy to decompose
  • B
    difficult to form from its elements and difficult to decompose
  • easy to form from its elements and difficult to decompose
  • D
    easy to form from its elements and easy to decompose
Answer
Correct option: C.
easy to form from its elements and difficult to decompose
C
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MCQ 821 Mark
Which of the following is responsible for the solubility of lithium compounds in organic solvents?
  • A
    Basic character of lithium compounds.
  • B
    All of these.
  • C
    Ionic character of lithium compounds.
  • Covalent character of lithium compounds.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Covalent character of lithium compounds.
D
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MCQ 841 Mark
The pH of $0.001 \mathrm{M} \mathrm{NaOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})}$ solution will be:
  • A
    9
  • 11
  • C
    7
  • D
    12
Answer
Correct option: B.
11
B
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MCQ 851 Mark
In calculating freezing point depression the concentration of solute is expressed in ____________.
  • A
    mass percent
  • B
    molarity
  • C
    mole fraction
  • molality
Answer
Correct option: D.
molality
D
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MCQ 861 Mark
At the boiling point of a liquid, its vapour pressure is equal to ____________.
  • A
    zero
  • B
    3 atm
  • C
    2 atm
  • 1 atm
Answer
Correct option: D.
1 atm
D
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MCQ 871 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
  • A
    Naphthalene dissolves in benzene.
  • B
    Sugar dissolves in water.
  • Cholesterol dissolves in water.
  • D
    NaCl dissolves in water.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cholesterol dissolves in water.
C
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MCQ 881 Mark
1 mol of $\mathrm{CO}_2$ contains ____________.
  • A
    16 g of O
  • B
    3.0 g of C
  • C
    $1.81 \times 10^{23}$ molecules of $\mathrm{CO}_2$
  • $6.022 \times 10^{23}$ atoms of C
Answer
Correct option: D.
$6.022 \times 10^{23}$ atoms of C
D
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MCQ 891 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT match.
  • A
    Number of comer particles in simple cubic unit cell → 8
  • B
    Total number of Bravais lattice → 14
  • C
    Total number of crystal systems → 7
  • Number of face particles in fcc lattice → 4
Answer
Correct option: D.
Number of face particles in fcc lattice → 4
D
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MCQ 901 Mark
The atoms of element 'Y' form hexagonal close packing and the atoms of element X occupies `3/4` th portion of the number of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound formed by X and Y is ____________.
  • A
    $X_4 Y_3$
  • $X_3 Y_2$
  • C
    $X_2 Y_2$
  • D
    $X_2 Y$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$X_3 Y_2$
B
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MCQ 911 Mark
What is the product of the following reaction?

$\ce{H3C - C ≡ CH + H - OH ->[{40%}H2SO4][{1%}HgSO4] ?}$

  • A
    ethanal
  • Acetone
  • C
    propan-2-ol
  • D
    Propanal
Answer
Correct option: B.
Acetone
B
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MCQ 921 Mark
As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex $\mathrm{Na}_3\left[\mathrm{AlF}_6\right]$ is ____________.
  • A
    sodium hexafluoroaluminium (Ill)
  • B
    trisodium hexafluoroalurninate (III)
  • sodium hexafluoroalurninate (III)
  • D
    sodium hexafluoridealuminate (III)
Answer
Correct option: C.
sodium hexafluoroalurninate (III)
C
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MCQ 931 Mark
The condensed formula of the following compound is ____________.Image
  • A
    $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{C}=\mathrm{CHCH}_3$
  • $\mathrm{CH}_2=\mathrm{CHCH}=\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_3$
  • C
    $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CHCH}=\mathrm{CHCH}_3$
  • D
    $\mathrm{CH}_2=\mathrm{CHCH}=\mathrm{CH}_2$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\mathrm{CH}_2=\mathrm{CHCH}=\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_3$
B
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MCQ 941 Mark
Which of the following is NOT true for lyophilic colloids?
  • A
    They are reversible.
  • B
    They are self-stabilized.
  • They are require traces of stabilizers.
  • D
    They are formed easily by direct mixing.
Answer
Correct option: C.
They are require traces of stabilizers.
C
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MCQ 951 Mark
At 25°C and 1 atm, a cylinder containing 10 L of an ideal gas is connected to the empty cylinder with a capacity of 20 L. The pressures exerted by gas m both the cylinders will be ____________.
  • A
    1 atm
  • 0.5 atm
  • C
    2 atm
  • D
    1.5 atm
Answer
Correct option: B.
0.5 atm
B
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MCQ 961 Mark
$CO_2$ is more soluble in water than $N_2$, because ____________.
  • A
    it has low boiling point
  • it undergoes chemical reaction with water
  • C
    it displaces air from water
  • D
    it is able to form hydrogen bond with water
Answer
Correct option: B.
it undergoes chemical reaction with water
B
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MCQ 971 Mark
When methane undergoes combustion in air, the oxidation number of C ____________.
  • A
    increases from −4 to 0
  • B
    decreases from +4 to +2
  • increases from −4 to +4
  • D
    decreases from +4 to −4
Answer
Correct option: C.
increases from −4 to +4
C
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MCQ 981 Mark
Ethene molecule has ____________ $s p^2-s \sigma$ bond(s), ___________ $s p^2-s p^2 \sigma$ bond $(\mathrm{s})$ and ____________ $p-p \pi$ bond(s).
  • A
    four, two, one
  • four, one, one
  • C
    six, one, one
  • D
    four, one, two
Answer
Correct option: B.
four, one, one
B
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MCQ 991 Mark
Which of the following has a greater number of electrons than neutrons?(Mass number of Mg, C, O and Na is 24, 12, 16 and 23 respectively).
  • A
    C
  • $O^{2-}$
  • C
    $Mg^{2+}$
  • D
    Na
Answer
Correct option: B.
$O^{2-}$
B
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MCQ 1001 Mark
Calculate the total volume occupied by 48 g oxygen and 42 g nitrogen at STP.
  • A
    56.2 L
  • B
    33.6 L
  • 67.2 L
  • D
    22.4 L
Answer
Correct option: C.
67.2 L
C
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MCQ 1011 Mark
All of the following are TRUE for industrial melanism, EXCEPT
  • A
    It is one of the best examples of natural selection.
  • B
    It refers to prevalence of dark colored moths in industrial areas where they could camouflage with dark colored background.
  • It refers to reduced numbers of dark colored moths due to industrial pollution.
  • D
    It was studied in black and white winged moths
Answer
Correct option: C.
It refers to reduced numbers of dark colored moths due to industrial pollution.
C
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MCQ 1021 Mark
In compliance with the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), which Act was passed in 2002?
  • A
    Environment Protection Act
  • B
    Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act
  • C
    Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act
  • Biological Diversity Act
Answer
Correct option: D.
Biological Diversity Act
D
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MCQ 1031 Mark
Which among the following is an exception to invasive species?
  • A
    African catfish
  • B
    Nile perch fish
  • C
    C. gariepinus
  • Cichlid fish
Answer
Correct option: D.
Cichlid fish
D
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MCQ 1041 Mark
Match the following and choose the correct alternative.
Column I Column II
i. Not evaluated a. Pervasive and abundant after careful assessment
ii. Near threatened b. Information related to risk of extinction is lacking in some way
iii. Least concern c. Described by scientist but not assessed by the IUCN
iv. Data deficient d. May meet the criteria for threatened status in the near future
  • A
    i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
  • B
    i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
  • i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
  • D
    i - d, ii - b, iii - c. iv - a
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
C
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MCQ 1051 Mark
Species richness - area relationship is given by ______.
  • A
    Edward Wilson
  • B
    Charles Darwin
  • C
    Walter Rosen
  • Alexander Von Humboldt
Answer
Correct option: D.
Alexander Von Humboldt
D
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MCQ 1061 Mark
Correlate the following.

Intraspecific diversity: Genetic diversity:: Interspecific diversity: ____________.

  • A
    Ecosystem diversity
  • B
    Ecological diversity
  • Species diversity
  • D
    Allelic diversity
Answer
Correct option: C.
Species diversity
C
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MCQ 1071 Mark
______ are the pioneers of ecological succession.
  • Autotrophs
  • B
    Carnivores
  • C
    Detritivores
  • D
    Herbivores
Answer
Correct option: A.
Autotrophs
A
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MCQ 1081 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement with respect to ecological succession.
  • A
    The process of primary succession is faster than that of secondary succession.
  • B
    The sudden and unpredictable change in the species composition of the given area is called ecological succession.
  • All communities change their structure and composition in response to change in environmental condition.
  • D
    Secondary succession begins in an area of newly cooled lava and bare rock.
Answer
Correct option: C.
All communities change their structure and composition in response to change in environmental condition.
C
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MCQ 1091 Mark
Which are the pioneer species in xerarch and hydrarch succession respectively?
  • A
    Lichens and sedges
  • Lichens and phytoplankton
  • C
    Lichens and rooted hydrophytes
  • D
    Phytoplankton and lichens
Answer
Correct option: B.
Lichens and phytoplankton
B
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MCQ 1101 Mark
____________ succession begins where no living organisms were present before.
  • Primary
  • B
    Seral
  • C
    Tertiary
  • D
    Secondary
Answer
Correct option: A.
Primary
A
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MCQ 1111 Mark
How can the changes that take place in communities during ecological succession be classified as?
  • A
    Random
  • B
    Not influenced by the physical environment.
  • Orderly and sequential
  • D
    Very quick
Answer
Correct option: C.
Orderly and sequential
C
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MCQ 1121 Mark
Which one of the following in NOT a mode of nutrition in fungi?
  • A
    Symbiotic
  • B
    Parasitic
  • Autotrophic
  • D
    Saprophytic
Answer
Correct option: C.
Autotrophic
C
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MCQ 1131 Mark
Identify the type of negative interaction.
  • Competition
  • B
    Commensalism
  • C
    Protocooperation
  • D
    Mutualism
Answer
Correct option: A.
Competition
A
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MCQ 1141 Mark
Select the CORRECT match:
I II
i. Competition a. Lichen
ii. Commensalism b. Sea anemone and clownfish
iii. Mutualism c. Lions and Leopards
  • A
    i - c, ii - a, iii - b
  • i - c, ii - b, iii - a
  • C
    i - a, ii- c, iii - b
  • D
    i - a, ii - b, iii - c
Answer
Correct option: B.
i - c, ii - b, iii - a
B
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MCQ 1151 Mark
Which principle/theory states that 'Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior will be eliminated eventually.'?
  • A
    Charles Darwin's "survival of the fittest" theory
  • B
    Mutation theory
  • C
    Theory of organic evolution
  • Gause's competitive exclusion principle
Answer
Correct option: D.
Gause's competitive exclusion principle
D
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MCQ 1161 Mark
Which of the following situations contributes to increase in density of population?
  • A
    Increase in emigration
  • B
    Decrease in immigration
  • Increase in natality
  • D
    Increase in mortality
Answer
Correct option: C.
Increase in natality
C
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MCQ 1171 Mark
The type of population represented in the given age pyramid is

Image

  • A
    Stable
  • B
    Regressing
  • Expanding
  • D
    Declining
Answer
Correct option: C.
Expanding
C
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MCQ 1181 Mark
Every organism occupies a particular place and has a functional role in an ecosystem known as ____________.
  • A
    habitat
  • B
    ecotone
  • ecological niche
  • D
    ecological pyramid
Answer
Correct option: C.
ecological niche
C
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MCQ 1191 Mark
Identify the CORRECT term for following description.

Some multinational companies have exploited the traditional knowledge of the indigenous people to produce commercially important bioproducts without their consent.

  • A
    Bioprospecting
  • B
    Biopatent
  • Biopiracy
  • D
    Bioremediation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Biopiracy
C
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MCQ 1201 Mark
In order to eliminate dicotyledonous weeds from a monocot crop field we can use ______.
  • A
    IAA
  • B
    NAA
  • 2, 4 - D
  • D
    $GA_3$
Answer
Correct option: C.
2, 4 - D
C
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MCQ 1211 Mark
In gene therapy, ____________ can be used to treat cystic fibrosis.
  • DNase
  • B
    Factor VIII
  • C
    TGF-B
  • D
    TPA
Answer
Correct option: A.
DNase
A
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MCQ 1221 Mark
Identify the techniques that can be used to transfer foreign DNA directly into the cell or protoplast without the use of plasmids.

i. Biolistic method

ii. Ultrasonification

iii. Shot gun

iv. Lipofection

v. Microinjection

vi. Electroporation

  • A
    Only iii and vi
  • i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi
  • C
    Only ii, iv, vi
  • D
    Only i, iii, v
Answer
Correct option: B.
i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi
B
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MCQ 1241 Mark
Identify the characterization techniques that are based on molecular weights of compounds.
  • i, ii, iii, iv and v
  • B
    ii and iii
  • C
    iii, iv and v
  • D
    i, ii, and iii
Answer
Correct option: A.
i, ii, iii, iv and v
A
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MCQ 1251 Mark
Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding Anabaena and Frankia?
  • A
    They are cyanobacteria
  • They are known as diazotrophs.
  • C
    They are phosphate solubilizing bacteria.
  • D
    They are free-living Sulphur fixing microorganisms.
Answer
Correct option: B.
They are known as diazotrophs.
B
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MCQ 1261 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding Ectomycorrhizae.
  • They increase absorptive surface area of roots that accelerates uptake of water and nutrients.
  • B
    They grow in between and within the cortical cells of roots.
  • C
    They form vesiculo arbuscular mycorrhizae
  • D
    They form arbuscules intracellularly.
Answer
Correct option: A.
They increase absorptive surface area of roots that accelerates uptake of water and nutrients.
A
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MCQ 1271 Mark
After which of the following treatment BOD of the effluent is significantly reduced?
  • A
    Tertiary treatment
  • B
    Primary treatment
  • C
    Preliminary treatment
  • Secondary treatment
Answer
Correct option: D.
Secondary treatment
D
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MCQ 1281 Mark
Identify the type of microorganisms involved in floe formation during sewage treatment.
  • A
    Fungus and algae
  • Aerobic bacteria and fungus
  • C
    Autotropbic bacteria and yeast
  • D
    Anaerobic bacteria and fungus
Answer
Correct option: B.
Aerobic bacteria and fungus
B
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MCQ 1291 Mark
Identify the diagram given below.

Image

  • Tubular tower fementer
  • B
    Oxidation tank
  • C
    Biogas plant
  • D
    Sewage treatment plant
Answer
Correct option: A.
Tubular tower fementer
A
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MCQ 1301 Mark
Which of the following is the INCORRECT statement with respect to biofortification?
  • A
    It is a method in which crops are bred for having better nutritive value.
  • B
    It can be achieved through selective breeding and rDNA technology.
  • Fortified wheat has high Vitamin C content.
  • D
    Using biofortification vitamin C enriched bitter gourd, tomatoes have been developed by IARI.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Fortified wheat has high Vitamin C content.
C
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MCQ 1311 Mark
From which plant is cocaine extracted?
  • Erythroxylum coca
  • B
    Datura
  • C
    Atropa belladonna
  • D
    Papaver somniferum
Answer
Correct option: A.
Erythroxylum coca
A
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MCQ 1321 Mark
The causative agent of malaria is a ______
  • protozoan
  • B
    bacterium
  • C
    virus
  • D
    helminth
Answer
Correct option: A.
protozoan
A
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MCQ 1331 Mark
Stomach cancer is characterised as ______.
  • A
    Adenocarcinoma
  • B
    Sarcoma
  • Carcinoma
  • D
    Leukemia
Answer
Correct option: C.
Carcinoma
C
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MCQ 1341 Mark
Complete the analogy with respect to causative agents of diseases.

B. malayi : Filariasis :: ____________ : Ringworm

  • A
    Haemophilus
  • B
    Entamoeba
  • C
    Ascaris
  • Microsporum
Answer
Correct option: D.
Microsporum
D
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MCQ 1351 Mark
The immune system of an individual is affected directly by ______.
  • A
    Cholera
  • AIDS
  • C
    Tetanus
  • D
    Tuberculosis
Answer
Correct option: B.
AIDS
B
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MCQ 1361 Mark
After infecting RBCs, merozoites develop into ____________.
  • A
    trophozoites
  • trophozoites and schizonts
  • C
    schizonts
  • D
    sporozoites
Answer
Correct option: B.
trophozoites and schizonts
B
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MCQ 1371 Mark
Branches of which nerve innervate the parotid salivary glands?
  • A
    Vagus
  • B
    Facial
  • Glossopharyngeal
  • D
    Spinal accessory
Answer
Correct option: C.
Glossopharyngeal
C
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MCQ 1381 Mark
What is the other name for forebrain?
  • A
    RbinencephaJon
  • B
    Mesencephalon
  • C
    Telencephalon
  • Prosencephalon
Answer
Correct option: D.
Prosencephalon
D
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MCQ 1391 Mark
Which part of the brain contains the corpora quadrigemina and crura?
  • Midbrain
  • B
    Cerebrum
  • C
    Forebrain
  • D
    Brain stem
Answer
Correct option: A.
Midbrain
A
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MCQ 1401 Mark
Match the following.
Column I Column II
i. oligodendrocytes a. Small sized, derived from monocytes and acts as macrophages
ii. Astrocytes b. Production and circulation of CSF
iii. Ependymal cells c. Mainly form the myelin sheath around central axon
iv. Microglia d. Star shaped and most abundant glial cells of CNS
  • A
    i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
  • B
    i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
  • i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
  • D
    i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
C
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MCQ 1411 Mark
Which are the sensory cranial nerves?
  • A
    $2^{\text {nd }}, 3^{\text {rd }}, 8^{\text {th }}$
  • B
    $3^{\text {rd }}, 8^{\text {th }}, 10^{\text {th }}$
  • $1^{\text {st }}, 2^{\text {nd }}, 8^{\text {th }}$
  • D
    $1^{\text {st }}, 2^{\text {nd }}, 3^{\text {rd }}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$1^{\text {st }}, 2^{\text {nd }}, 8^{\text {th }}$
C
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MCQ 1421 Mark
Which is the ninth cranial nerve in humans?
  • A
    Trigeminal
  • B
    Hypoglossal
  • Glossopharyngeal
  • D
    Spinal accessory
Answer
Correct option: C.
Glossopharyngeal
C
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MCQ 1431 Mark
For which of the following reason it is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal?
  • A
    The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
  • B
    It is easier to carry a small body weight.
  • C
    Small animals have a lower $O_2$ requirement.
  • Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
D
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MCQ 1441 Mark
Following is the diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG. What is represented by 'T' wave?

Image

  • Repolarisation of ventricles
  • B
    Depolarisation of ventricles
  • C
    Repolarisation of atria
  • D
    Depolarisation of atria
Answer
Correct option: A.
Repolarisation of ventricles
A
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MCQ 1451 Mark
______ indicates heaviness with severe chest pain which may disappear with rest.
  • A
    Atherosclerosis
  • B
    Arteriosclerosis
  • Angina pectoris
  • D
    Hyperthyroidism
Answer
Correct option: C.
Angina pectoris
C
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MCQ 1461 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
  • A
    Capillaries are blood vessels through which blood flows under low pressure.
  • Capillaries are involved in exchange of materials.
  • C
    Capillaries are thick walled having stratified squamous epithelium.
  • D
    Capillaries are blood vessels that lack fenestrae.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Capillaries are involved in exchange of materials.
B
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MCQ 1471 Mark
Which of the following correctly represents the flow of blood in closed blood vascular system?
  • A
    Heart → Veins → Capillaries→ Arteries → Heart.
  • B
    Heart → Capillaries → Arterioles → Arteries → Veins → Heart.
  • Heart → Aorta → Arteries → Arterioles → Capillaries → Veins → Heart.
  • D
    Heart → Arteries → Capillaries → Heart.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Heart → Aorta → Arteries → Arterioles → Capillaries → Veins → Heart.
C
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MCQ 1481 Mark
The given diagram represents the conducting system of human heart. Identify 1, 2, 3, 4.

Image

  • A
    1 - AV node; 2 - Semilunar valve; 3 - Left ventricle; 4 - SA node
  • B
    1 - Semilunar valve· 2 - SA node; 3 - AV node; 4 - Left ventricle
  • 1 - SA node; 2 - AV node; 3 - Semilunar valve; 4 - Left ventricle
  • D
    1 - SA node; 2 - Semilunar valve; 3 - AV node; 4 - Left ventricle
Answer
Correct option: C.
1 - SA node; 2 - AV node; 3 - Semilunar valve; 4 - Left ventricle
C
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MCQ 1491 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Rhizobium?
  • It is a bacterium that contains nod and nif genes.
  • B
    It is a Gram-positive bacterium.
  • C
    It is spore-forming, nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
  • D
    It is a non-nodule-forming bacterium.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It is a bacterium that contains nod and nif genes.
A
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MCQ 1501 Mark
Synthesis of ethylene takes place in ______
  • all of these
  • B
    shoot apical meristem
  • C
    roots
  • D
    ripening fruits
Answer
Correct option: A.
all of these
A
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MCQ 1511 Mark
Among the following statements regarding gibberellins all are true, except
  • A
    $GA_3$ is the most common and biologically active form of gibberellin.
  • B
    It promotes seed germination in cereals like barley and wheat.
  • C
    Its application causes stem elongation of genetically dwarf maize plants.
  • It prevents bolting in plants with rosette habit.
Answer
Correct option: D.
It prevents bolting in plants with rosette habit.
D
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MCQ 1521 Mark
Auxin in was isolated by F.W. Went from ____________.
  • coleoptile tip of oat
  • B
    coleorhiza tip of oat
  • C
    coleorhiza tip of maize
  • D
    coleoptile tip of maize
Answer
Correct option: A.
coleoptile tip of oat
A
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MCQ 1531 Mark
First cytokinin was discovered by Skoog and Miller while working on tissue culture of ____________ plant.
  • A
    Rice seedlings
  • B
    Gibberella fajikuroi
  • Nicotiana tabacum
  • D
    Avena
Answer
Correct option: C.
Nicotiana tabacum
C
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MCQ 1541 Mark
Formation of inter-fascicular cambium during secondary growth of plants is facilitated by ______.
  • A
    ABA
  • B
    ethylene
  • cytokinin
  • D
    gibberellin
Answer
Correct option: C.
cytokinin
C
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MCQ 1551 Mark
Which of the following term correctly describes the membrane which allows passage of certain substances more readily than others?
  • A
    Semisolid membrane
  • B
    Penneable membrane
  • C
    Impermeable membrane
  • Selectively permeable membrane
Answer
Correct option: D.
Selectively permeable membrane
D
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MCQ 1561 Mark
Which process aids absorption of water by seeds during its germination?
  • A
    Diffusion
  • B
    Endosmosis
  • Imbibition
  • D
    Exosmosis
Answer
Correct option: C.
Imbibition
C
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MCQ 1571 Mark
Due to which ·of the following reason root cap has no function in water absorption?
  • It has no root hair.
  • B
    Its cells are loosely placed.
  • C
    Its vascular system is not directly connected.
  • D
    It has cells without chloroplast.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It has no root hair.
A
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MCQ 1581 Mark
______ water refers to the water that is present in the fine spaces of small non-colloidal soil particles.
  • Capillary
  • B
    Gravitational
  • C
    Hygroscopic
  • D
    Chemical
Answer
Correct option: A.
Capillary
A
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MCQ 1591 Mark
____________plants like orchids absorb water vapours from air with the help of epiphytic roots having special tissue called velamen.
  • A
    Saprophytic
  • B
    Hyperphytic
  • Epiphytic
  • D
    Hypophytic
Answer
Correct option: C.
Epiphytic
C
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MCQ 1601 Mark
Which of the following is NOT a property of water?
  • A
    It is a best aqueous medium for all biochemical reactions occurring in the cells.
  • B
    It is a best solvent for most of the solutes.
  • C
    It is a best transporting medium for dissolved minerals and food molecules.
  • It provides energy necessary for most of the chemical reactions.
Answer
Correct option: D.
It provides energy necessary for most of the chemical reactions.
D
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MCQ 1611 Mark
Identify the character which is most relatable to Neanderthal man?
  • A
    Developed distinct races and pre-historic cave art
  • B
    Nicknamed handy man
  • C
    Brain capacity 650 cc - 800 cc
  • Buried their dead
Answer
Correct option: D.
Buried their dead
D
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MCQ 1621 Mark
Identify the CORRECT feature of Neanderthal man?
  • A
    Brain capacity 650 cc-800 cc
  • Buried their dead
  • C
    Man with ape brain
  • D
    Developed cave ar
Answer
Correct option: B.
Buried their dead
B
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MCQ 1631 Mark
Which amongst the following is the earliest fossil?
  • A
    Homo habilis
  • Ramapithecus
  • C
    Australopithecus
  • D
    Homo erectus
Answer
Correct option: B.
Ramapithecus
B
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MCQ 1641 Mark
Which of the features of modern man differs from apes?
  • A
    Body hair
  • Arms shorter than legs
  • C
    Protruding eyes
  • D
    Absence of chin
Answer
Correct option: B.
Arms shorter than legs
B
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MCQ 1651 Mark
Genetic drift is more significant in ______
  • A
    large isolated population
  • small isolated population
  • C
    non-reproductive population
  • D
    slow reproductive population
Answer
Correct option: B.
small isolated population
B
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MCQ 1661 Mark
Any random fluctuation or alteration in the allele frequency occurring in the natural population by pure chance is called ____________.
  • A
    genetic recombination
  • B
    natural selection
  • C
    gene flow
  • genetic drift
Answer
Correct option: D.
genetic drift
D
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MCQ 1671 Mark
Which of the following process is carried out by restriction endonuclease used in DNA fingerprinting?
  • Fragmentation of DNA
  • B
    Loading DNA on agarose plate
  • C
    Synthesis of DNA
  • D
    Getting copies of DNA
Answer
Correct option: A.
Fragmentation of DNA
A
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MCQ 1691 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option.
$(i)$ Structural genomics : It deals with the study of functions of all gene sequences and their expression in organisms.
$(ii)$ Functional genomics : It involves mapping, sequencing, and analysis of genome.
  • Both the statements are incorrect.
  • B
    Statement $\text{i}$ is incorrect whereas statement $\text{ii}$ is correct.
  • C
    Statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect whereas statement $\text{i}$ is correct.
  • D
    Both the statements are correct.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Both the statements are incorrect.
Both the statements are incorrect.
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MCQ 1701 Mark
______ refers to the phenomenon by which a set of genes are switched on when there is necessity to metabolise a new substrate.
  • A
    Reduction
  • B
    Regulation
  • Induction
  • D
    Repression
Answer
Correct option: C.
Induction
C
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MCQ 1711 Mark
______ refers to the portion of gene which is transcribed but not translated.
  • Intron
  • B
    Exon
  • C
    Cistron
  • D
    Codon
Answer
Correct option: A.
Intron
A
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MCQ 1721 Mark
____________ refers to removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit.
  • A
    Transformation
  • B
    Capping
  • C
    Tailing
  • Splicing
Answer
Correct option: D.
Splicing
D
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MCQ 1731 Mark
From the following which option correctly represents the normal genetic constitution of a ovum?
  • A
    22 Allosomes + X chromosome
  • B
    22 Autosomes +Two X chromosomes
  • C
    23 Autosomes + X chromosome
  • 22 Autosomes + X chromosome
Answer
Correct option: D.
22 Autosomes + X chromosome
D
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MCQ 1741 Mark
If a normal visioned woman marries a colour blind man then, ______,
  • A
    all daughters will be colour blind.
  • B
    both sons and daughters would be colour blind.
  • C
    only sons would be colour blind
  • none of the children would be colour blind.
Answer
Correct option: D.
none of the children would be colour blind.
D
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MCQ 1751 Mark
The criss-cross pattern of inheritance is observed in ____________.
  • both haemophilia and colour blindness
  • B
    colour blindness
  • C
    haemophilia
  • D
    hypertrichosis
Answer
Correct option: A.
both haemophilia and colour blindness
A
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MCQ 1761 Mark
Deficiency of______ enzyme results in phenylketonuria.
  • A
    phenylalanine isomerase
  • B
    phenylalanine esterase
  • phenylalanine hydroxylase
  • D
    phenylalanine carboxylase
Answer
Correct option: C.
phenylalanine hydroxylase
C
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MCQ 1771 Mark
Analyse the following statements with respect to complete sex linkage and select the correct option.
$(i)$ It is exhibited by genes located on non $-$ homologous regions of $X$ and $Y$ chromosomes
$(ii) \ Y-$ linked trait is hypertrichosis.
$(iii) \ X-$ linked traits are haemophilia, red-green colour blindness, myopia $($near sightedness$)$.
  • A
    $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct whereas $\text{ii}$ is incorrect.
  • B
    $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct whereas $\text{i}$ is incorrect.
  • $\text{i, ii,} $ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
  • D
    $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct whereas $\text{iii}$ is incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\text{i, ii,} $ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
$\text{i, ii,} $ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
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MCQ 1781 Mark
What' does 'P' and 'Q' represent in the following diagram of X and Y chromosomes? Select the correct option representing, its appropriate description.

Image

  • A
    P: Non-homologous region containing dissimilar genes.

    Q: Homologous region containing dominant genes.

  • B
    P: Non-homologous region containing dissimilar genes.

    Q: Homologous region containing dissimilar genes.

  • C
    P: Non-homologous region containing recessive genes.

    Q: Homologous region containing similar genes.

  • P: Homologous region containing similar genes.

    Q: Non-homologous region containing dissimilar genes.

Answer
Correct option: D.
P: Homologous region containing similar genes.

Q: Non-homologous region containing dissimilar genes.

D
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MCQ 1791 Mark
How is contraception achieved with intra uterine devices such as copper T and loop?
  • A
    They reduce sperm mobility
  • B
    They prevent ovulation
  • C
    They prevent spermatogenesis
  • They prevent fertilization or implantation
Answer
Correct option: D.
They prevent fertilization or implantation
D
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MCQ 1801 Mark
All are functions of placenta, EXCEPT ______.
  • A
    It facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo.
  • B
    It secretes estrogen.
  • C
    It facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo
  • It secretes oxytocin during parturition.
Answer
Correct option: D.
It secretes oxytocin during parturition.
D
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MCQ 1811 Mark
How long does human pregnancy last from the start of the last menstrual cycle?
  • A
    300
  • B
    225
  • 280
  • D
    266
Answer
Correct option: C.
280
C
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MCQ 1831 Mark
How many hours are required for the process of capacitation?
  • A
    1-2
  • B
    12-14
  • C
    8-10
  • 5-6
Answer
Correct option: D.
5-6
D
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MCQ 1841 Mark
Four primary spermatocytes give rise to ______.
  • A
    8 Spermatozoa
  • B
    4 Spermatids
  • 16 Spermatozoa
  • D
    16 Spermatogonia
Answer
Correct option: C.
16 Spermatozoa
C
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MCQ 1851 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statements with respect to non-recurrent apomixis.

i. Plants produced by this method are generally sterile and do not reproduce sexually.

ii. In this, megaspore mother cell undergoes usual meiotic division and a haploid embryo sac is formed.

  • Both i and ii
  • B
    Only ii
  • C
    Neither i nor ii
  • D
    Only i
Answer
Correct option: A.
Both i and ii
A
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MCQ 1861 Mark
______ refers to persistent nucellus in the seed.
  • A
    Hilum
  • B
    Tegmen
  • Perisperm
  • D
    Chalaza
Answer
Correct option: C.
Perisperm
C
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MCQ 1871 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement/s from the following.

i. In post-fertilization changes within the ovule, the development of embryo is followed by the development of endosperm.

ii. Helobial endosperm is intermediate between cellular and nuclear type endosperm.

iii. Helobial endosperm is mostly observed in 72 families of dicots.

  • only ii
  • B
    i and ii
  • C
    i, ii and iii
  • D
    only i
Answer
Correct option: A.
only ii
A
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MCQ 1881 Mark
By which of the following double fertilization is exhibited?
  • A
    Fungi
  • B
    Algae
  • Angiosperms
  • D
    Gymnosperms
Answer
Correct option: C.
Angiosperms
C
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MCQ 1891 Mark
Fill up the blanks with suitable words and select the correct option.

The ability of the pistil to recognize pollen is dependent on ____________ components and ____________ guide the entry of pollen tube. This study leads to help ____________ in getting ____________ even in ____________.

p. Chemical

q. Plant breeders

r. Hybrids

s. Incompatible pollination

t. Synergids

  • p, t, q, r, s
  • B
    p, r, q, s, t
  • C
    p, q, r, s, t
  • D
    t, p, s, r, q
Answer
Correct option: A.
p, t, q, r, s
A
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MCQ 1901 Mark
From the following identify the outbreeding device/s that prevent/s self-pollination.
  • All of these
  • B
    Protogyny
  • C
    Unisexuality
  • D
    Protandry
Answer
Correct option: A.
All of these
A
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MCQ 1911 Mark
Diuresis means ______.
  • A
    decrease in the glomerular filtrate
  • B
    failure to achieve osmoregulation
  • C
    failure of kidneys to produce urine
  • increased excretion of urine
Answer
Correct option: D.
increased excretion of urine
D
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MCQ 1921 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
  • A
    The concentration of fluid in descending limb is more than that of ascending limb.
  • $Na^+$ and $Cl^-$ cannot be absorbed by cells of ascending limb.
  • C
    Transport of water from the descending limb into tissue fluid takes place by osmosis.
  • D
    Wall of ascending limb is thicker than that of descending limb.
Answer
Correct option: B.
$Na^+$ and $Cl^-$ cannot be absorbed by cells of ascending limb.
B
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MCQ 1931 Mark
The amount of heat liberated by combustion of 1 g. of food in a bomb calorimeter is called ____________.
  • A
    beat energy
  • B
    physiological value
  • C
    calorie
  • gross calorific value/gross energy
Answer
Correct option: D.
gross calorific value/gross energy
D
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MCQ 1941 Mark
Saliva contains all of the following, EXCEPT
  • A
    amylase
  • chyme
  • C
    lysozyme
  • D
    electrolytes
Answer
Correct option: B.
chyme
B
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MCQ 1961 Mark
How many ATP molecules are produced by oxjdation of one molecule of acetyl-Co-A?
  • 12 ATP
  • B
    6 ATP
  • C
    24 ATP
  • D
    32 ATP
Answer
Correct option: A.
12 ATP
A
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MCQ 1971 Mark
Following pathway. flowchart represents glycolytic pathway.

Image

The enzymes catalyzing reactions 1, 2, and 3 respectively in the above steps are

  • A
    G-3-P dehydrogenase, Enolase, Phosphoglyceromutase
  • B
    Enolase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate kinase
  • C
    Phosphoglycerokinase, Enolase, Pyruvate kinase
  • Phosphoglyceromutase, Enolase, Pyruvate kinase
Answer
Correct option: D.
Phosphoglyceromutase, Enolase, Pyruvate kinase
D
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MCQ 1981 Mark
Which of the following contains keratin?
  • A
    Connective tissue
  • Both (A) and (B)
  • C
    Hair
  • D
    Skin
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both (A) and (B)
B
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MCQ 1991 Mark
Which of the following biomolecules is absent or found in least concentration in ribosomes?
  • A
    Both (A) and (C)
  • B
    Proteins
  • Lipids
  • D
    RNA
Answer
Correct option: C.
Lipids
C
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MCQ 2001 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to lipids.
  • A
    Lipids are important components of the eukaryotic cell membrane.
  • B
    Oleic acid contains double bonds between carbon atoms of its chain.
  • C
    Cholesterol is the precursor molecule of many sex honnones.
  • Plants are abundant with saturated fats.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Plants are abundant with saturated fats.
D
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