Questions

MCQ

Take a timed test

200 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 11 Mark
In the case of NAND gate, if A and Bare in the inputs and Y is the output, then ______.
  • `"Y"=bar("A"*"B")`
  • B
    Y = A × B
  • C
    `"Y"=bar("A"+"B")`
  • D
    Y = A + B
Answer
Correct option: A.
`"Y"=bar("A"*"B")`
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 21 Mark
In a silicon transistor, a change of 7.89 mA in the emitter current if produces a change of 7.8 mA in the collector current, then the base current must change by ____________.
  • A
    9 µA
  • B
    0.9 µA
  • C
    900 µA
  • 90 µA
Answer
Correct option: D.
90 µA
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 31 Mark
A common emitter amplifier is designed with n-p-n transistor (α = 0.99). The input impedance is 1 kΩ and the load is 10 kΩ. The voltage gain will be ______
  • A
    9.9
  • B
    99
  • C
    9900
  • 990
Answer
Correct option: D.
990
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 41 Mark
Using Bohr's quantization condition, what is the rotational energy in the second orbit for a diatomic molecule. (I = moment of inertia of diatomic molecule, h = Planck's constant)
  • A
    `"h"/(2"I"^2 pi)`
  • `"h"^2/(2"I" pi)`
  • C
    `"h"/(2"I" pi^2)`
  • D
    `"h"^2/(2"I"^2 pi^2)`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`"h"^2/(2"I" pi)`
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 51 Mark
In Bohr's model of hydrogen atom, the period of revolution of the electron in any orbit is proportional to ______.
  • A
    square root of the quantum number.
  • B
    square of the quantum number.
  • cube of the quantum number
  • D
    the quantum number.
Answer
Correct option: C.
cube of the quantum number
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 61 Mark
The energy (in eV) required to excite an electron from n = 2 to n = 4 state in hydrogen atom is ____________.
  • A
    -0.85
  • +2.55
  • C
    - 3.4
  • D
    +4.25
Answer
Correct option: B.
+2.55
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 71 Mark
Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of photoelectric current (i) with intensity (I) of the incident light?
  • A

    Image
  • B

    Image

  • Image
  • D

    Image
Answer
Correct option: C.

Image
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 81 Mark
The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photon emission from the substance is (approximately) ____________.
  • 310 nm
  • B
    966 nm
  • C
    3100 nm
  • D
    31 nm
Answer
Correct option: A.
310 nm
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 91 Mark
Photoelectrons emitted from a metallic surface are initially ____________.
  • A
    orbiting very close to the nucleus
  • B
    generated by decay of neutrons within the nucleus
  • free to move within interatomic spacing
  • D
    present inside the nucleus
Answer
Correct option: C.
free to move within interatomic spacing
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 101 Mark
In an a.c. circuit containing L, C, R is series, the ratio of true power to apparent power is (Z = impedance of the circuit, R = resistance, `phi` = phase difference between the r.m.s. values of current and e.m.f.) ____________.
  • `"R"/"Z"`
  • B
    `"Z"/"R"`
  • C
    `cot phi`
  • D
    RZ
Answer
Correct option: A.
`"R"/"Z"`
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 111 Mark
If in an A.C., L.C series circuit $X_C>X_L$. Hence potential______.
  • A
    Leads the current by π in phase
  • Lags behind the current by `π/2` in phase
  • C
    Lags behind the current by π in phase
  • D
    Leads the current by `π/2` in phase
Answer
Correct option: B.
Lags behind the current by `π/2` in phase
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 121 Mark
The rms value of current in a 50 Hz AC circuit is 6 A. The average value of AC current over a cycle is ____________.
  • A
    `6/(pisqrt2)`
  • zero
  • C
    `3/(pisqrt2)`
  • D
    `6sqrt2`
Answer
Correct option: B.
zero
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 131 Mark
Alternating current of peak value `(2/pi)` ampere flows through the primary coil of transformer. The coefficient of mutual inductance between primary and secondary coil is 1 H. The peak e.m.f. induced in secondary coil is ______. (Frequency of a.c. = 50 Hz)
  • 200 V
  • B
    300 V
  • C
    100 V
  • D
    400 V
Answer
Correct option: A.
200 V
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 141 Mark
Consider a solenoid carrying supplied by a source with a constant emf containing iron core inside it. When the core is pulled out of the solenoid, the change in current will ______.
  • A
    modulate
  • decrease
  • C
    increase
  • D
    remain same
Answer
Correct option: B.
decrease
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 151 Mark
A rectangular loop of area $0.4 \mathrm{~m}^2$ is lying in a magnetic field of $4 \times 10^{-2}$ tesla at an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with the magnetic field. The magnetic flux passing through this loop will be ______.
  • $8 \times 10^-3$ weber
  • B
    zero
  • C
    $8 \times 10^-2$ weber
  • D
    $8 \times 10^-4$ weber
Answer
Correct option: A.
$8 \times 10^-3$ weber
A. $8 \times 10^-3$ weber
View full question & answer
MCQ 161 Mark
A domain in a ferromagnetic substance is in the form of a cube of side length $1 \mu \mathrm{m}$. If it contains $6 \times 10^{10}$ atoms and each atomic dipole has a dipole moment of $7 \times 10^{-24} \mathrm{Am}^2$, then magnetization of the domain is _________.
  • A
    $4.2 \times 10^{12} \mathrm{Am}^{-1}$
  • B
    $4.2 \times 10^3 \mathrm{Am}^{-1}$
  • $4.2 \times 10^5 \mathrm{Am}^{-1}$
  • D
    $4.2 \times 10^9 \mathrm{Am}^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$4.2 \times 10^5 \mathrm{Am}^{-1}$
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 171 Mark
Find the intensity of magnetization of a magnet of moment $4 \mathrm{Am}^2$ which weighs 50 gram . (Density of the material of a magnet $\left.=5000 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\right)$
  • $4 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~A} / \mathrm{m}$
  • B
    $10^5 \mathrm{~A} / \mathrm{m}$
  • C
    $2 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~A} / \mathrm{m}$
  • D
    $3 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~A} / \mathrm{m}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$4 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~A} / \mathrm{m}$
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 181 Mark
Relative permeability of nickel is 550, then its magnetic susceptibility will be ____________.
  • A
    `550 xx10^7`
  • B
    551
  • C
    `550 xx 10^-7`
  • 549
Answer
Correct option: D.
549
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 191 Mark
An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude ____________.
  • `(mu _0 "ne")/ (2r)`
  • B
    zero
  • C
    `(mu_0 "ne")/(2pir)`
  • D
    `(mu_0 "n"^ 2 "e")/ r`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`(mu _0 "ne")/ (2r)`
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 201 Mark
The sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer is inversely proportional to ____________.
  • A
    current it measures
  • twist constant of phosphor bronze wire
  • C
    Number of turns in the coil
  • D
    magnetic induction of horse shoe magnet
Answer
Correct option: B.
twist constant of phosphor bronze wire
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 211 Mark
A straight wire of length 0.5 m and carrying current of 1.2A is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 2T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. What is the force acting on the wire? sin 90° = 1
  • A
    2.4 N
  • 1.2 N
  • C
    3.0 N
  • D
    2.0 N
Answer
Correct option: B.
1.2 N
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 221 Mark
The resistances in left and right gap of a metrebridge are 20 `Omega` and 30 `Omega` respectively. When the resistance in the left gap is reduced to half its value, the balance point shifts by ______.
  • A
    20 cm to the left.
  • 15 cm to the left.
  • C
    20 cm to the right.
  • D
    15 cm to the right.
Answer
Correct option: B.
15 cm to the left.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 231 Mark
Kirchhoff's law of radiation proves that ______
  • A
    a good emitter is a good transmitter of heat.
  • B
    a good emitter is a bad absorber of heat.
  • a good emitter is a good absorber of heat.
  • D
    a good emitter is a good reflector of heat.
Answer
Correct option: C.
a good emitter is a good absorber of heat.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 241 Mark
What determines the conventional direction of the product of current and resistance while applying the Kirchhoff's law?
  • A
    Value of P.D.
  • Direction of current
  • C
    Magnitude of current
  • D
    Value of resistance
Answer
Correct option: B.
Direction of current
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 251 Mark
Which of the following molecules is a polar molecule?
  • A
    Carbon dioxide $\left(\mathrm{CO}_2\right)$
  • B
    Oxygen $\left(\mathrm{O}_2\right)$
  • C
    Hydrogen $\left(\mathrm{H}_2\right)$
  • Hydrogen Chloride (HCl)
Answer
Correct option: D.
Hydrogen Chloride (HCl)
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 261 Mark
Statement - 1: For practical purpose, the earth is used as a reference at zero potential in electrical circuits.

Statement - 2: The electrical potential of a sphere of radius R with charge Q uniformly distributed on the surface is given by `Q/(4piepsilon_0R)`.

  • Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
  • B
    Statement - 1 is False, Statement - 2 is True.
  • C
    Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False.
  • D
    Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 271 Mark
Band width for red light of wavelength 6600 Å is 0.42 mm. If red Light is replaced by blue light of wavelength 4400 Å, then the change m bandwidth will be ____________.
  • A
    $4 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~m}$
  • B
    $21 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~m}$
  • C
    $4 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~m}$
  • $21 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~m}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$21 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~m}$
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 281 Mark
A plane wavefront is an incident on a water surface at an angle of incidence 60° then it gets refracted at 45°. The ratio of the width of incident wavefront to that of refracted wavefront will be ______

`[sin pi/4 = cos pi/4 = 1/sqrt2, sin60^circ = sqrt3/2, cos60^circ = 1/2]`

  • A
    `sqrt2`
  • `1/sqrt2`
  • C
    `sqrt3/2`
  • D
    `2sqrt3`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`1/sqrt2`
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 291 Mark
In a stationary wave all particles ______
  • A
    vibrate in S.H.M. of the same period and same amplitude.
  • except at nodes vibrate in S.H.M. of the same period but of different amplitudes.
  • C
    vibrate in S.H.M. of different periods and different amplitudes.
  • D
    except at nodes vibrate in S.H.M. of the same period and same amplitude.
Answer
Correct option: B.
except at nodes vibrate in S.H.M. of the same period but of different amplitudes.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 301 Mark
In case of vibrating string, the frequency of the fifth harmonic is equal to frequency of the ____________.
  • A
    second overtone
  • fourth overtone
  • C
    third overtone
  • D
    sixth overtone
Answer
Correct option: B.
fourth overtone
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 311 Mark
The displacement of a particle is y = 2 sin $[(pit)/2 + \phi]$, where 'y' is cm and 't' in second. What is the maximum acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion?(Φ = phase difference)
  • A
    $\pi^2 4 cm/s^2$
  • $\pi^2 2 cm/s^2$
  • C
    $\pi^4 cm/s^2$
  • D
    $\pi^2 cm/s^2$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\pi^2 2 cm/s^2$
B. $\pi^2 2 cm/s^2$
View full question & answer
MCQ 321 Mark
A wheel of $M.I. 50 kg m^2$ starts rotating on applying a constant torque of 200 Nm. Its angular velocity after 2.5 second from the start is ______.
  • A
    5 rad/s
  • B
    1 rad/s
  • C
    8 rad/s
  • 10 rad/s
Answer
Correct option: D.
10 rad/s
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 331 Mark
Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand (i) isothermally (ii) adiabatically. Work done is ____________.
  • A
    equal in both processes
  • more in the isothermal process
  • C
    less in isothermal process
  • D
    more in the adiabatic process
Answer
Correct option: B.
more in the isothermal process
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 341 Mark
A system changes from the state $\left(P_1, V_1\right)$ to $\left(P_2, V_2\right)$ as shown in the figure. What is the work done by the system?Image
  • A
    $12 \times 10^5$ joule
  • B
    $6 \times 10^5$ joule
  • C
    $10.5 \times 10^5 \mathrm{erg}$
  • $10.5 \times 10^5$ joule
Answer
Correct option: D.
$10.5 \times 10^5$ joule
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 351 Mark
Temperatures of two stars are in the ratio 3 : 2. If wavelength of maximum intensity of first star is 4500 Å, the corresponding wavelength for second star is ______.
  • 6750 Å
  • B
    9000 Å
  • C
    3000 Å
  • D
    2250 Å
Answer
Correct option: A.
6750 Å
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 361 Mark
Half part of an ice block is covered with black cloth and rest half is covered with white cloth and then it is kept in sunlight. After some time, clothes are removed to see the melted ice. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • A
    It will depend on the temperature of surroundings of ice
  • B
    Ice covered with white cloth will melt more
  • Ice covered with black cloth will melt more
  • D
    Equal ice will melt under both clothes
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ice covered with black cloth will melt more
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 371 Mark
Two spheres of equal masses but radii $r_1$ and $r_2$ are allowed to fall in a liquid of infinite column. The ratio of their terminal velocities are ____________.
  • A
    $\sqrt r_1 : \sqrt r_2$
  • B
    1
  • C
    $r_1: r_2$
  • $r_2: r_1$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$r_2: r_1$
D. $r_2: r_1$
View full question & answer
MCQ 381 Mark
Reynold's number is less for ______.
  • more viscosity
  • B
    less viscosity
  • C
    more density
  • D
    more radius
Answer
Correct option: A.
more viscosity
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 391 Mark
A particle of mass m is rotating in a plane in a circular path of radius r. Its angular momentum is L. The centripetal force acting on the particle is ______.
  • `"L"^2/"mr"^3`
  • B
    `"L"^2/"mr"`
  • C
    `"L"^2/"mr"^2`
  • D
    `"mL"^2/"r"`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`"L"^2/"mr"^3`
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 401 Mark
A stone of mass 1 kg is rotated in a horizontal circle of radius 0.5 m. If it makes $100/\pi$ rps, then its angular momentum is ______
  • A
    $5 \pi^2 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
  • B
    $800 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
  • $50 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
  • D
    $2.5 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$50 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
C. $50 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
View full question & answer
MCQ 411 Mark
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is ______.Image
  • A
    0 A
  • B
    $10^{-3} \mathrm{~A}$
     
  • $10^{-2} \mathrm{~A}$
  • D
    $10^{-1} \mathrm{~A}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$10^{-2} \mathrm{~A}$
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 421 Mark
A conducting sphere of radius 0.104 m has an unknown charge. If the electric field at 0.20 m from the centre of the sphere is $1.5 \times 10^3 \mathrm{NC}^{-1}$ and points radially inward, what is the electric flux?
  • A
    $669.8 \mathrm{Nm}^2 \mathrm{C}^{-1}$
  • B
    $753.7 \mathrm{Nm}^2 \mathrm{C}^{-1}$
  • $-753.7 \mathrm{Nm}^2 \mathrm{C}^{-1}$
  • D
    $667.8 \mathrm{Nm}^2 \mathrm{C}^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$-753.7 \mathrm{Nm}^2 \mathrm{C}^{-1}$
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 431 Mark
Where should a person stand in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm to get a real image of his own, 2 times larger?
  • A
    10 cm
  • B
    30 cm
  • 20 cm
  • D
    80 cm
Answer
Correct option: C.
20 cm
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 441 Mark
The pitch of the whistle of an engine appears to drop to`(5/6)^"th"` of original value when it passes a stationary observer. If the speed of sound in air is 350 m/s then the speed of engine is ____________.
  • A
    105 m/s
  • 70 m/s
  • C
    140 m/s
  • D
    35 m/s
Answer
Correct option: B.
70 m/s
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 451 Mark
A metal rod of cross-sectional area $3 \times 10^{-6} m^2$ is suspended vertically from one end has a length 0.4 m at $100^{\circ} C$. Now the rod is cooled upto $0^{\circ} C$, but prevented from contracting by attaching a mass ' $m$ ' at the lower end. The value of ' $m$ ' is ............ ( $\left( Y =10^{11} N / m ^2\right.$, coefficient of linear expansion $=10^{-5} / K , g =10 m / s ^2$ )
  • A
    40 kg
  • B
    20 kg
  • 30 kg
  • D
    10 kg
Answer
Correct option: C.
30 kg
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 461 Mark
If a body weighing 40 kg is taken inside the earth to a depth to radius of the earth, then `1/8`th the weight of the body at that point is ______.
  • 35 kg-wt
  • B
    40 kg-wt
  • C
    20 kg-wt
  • D
    30 kg-wt
Answer
Correct option: A.
35 kg-wt
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 471 Mark
For regular shapes of the small body, which of the following statement is true?
  • A
    The centre of mass is at half the distance of centre of gravity.
  • The centre of mass coincides with centre of gravity.
  • C
    The centre of mass is higher than centre of gravity.
  • D
    The centre of mass is lower than centre of gravity.
Answer
Correct option: B.
The centre of mass coincides with centre of gravity.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 481 Mark
A ball kept at 20 m height falls freely in downward direction vertically and hits the ground. The coefficient of restitution is 0.4 . After the first rebound, the upward velocity is $g =10 m / s ^2$ ?
  • A
    12 m/s
  • B
    4 m/s
  • C
    16 m/s
  • 8 m/s
Answer
Correct option: D.
8 m/s
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 491 Mark
A particle is moving along the circular path of radius 'r' with velocity 'v'. The magnitude of average acceleration after half revolution is ______.
  • `(2v^2)/(pir)`
  • B
    `(3v^2)/(pir)`
  • C
    `(3v^2)/(2pir)`
  • D
    `(v^2)/(pir)`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`(2v^2)/(pir)`
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 501 Mark
Figure shows the displacement-time graph of a particle moving along x-axis.Image
  • A
    The particle is at rest.
  • B
    The particle is continuously going in positive x- direction.
  • The particle moves at a constant velocity upto a time $t_0$ and then stops.
  • D
    The velocity increases upto time $t_0$ and then becomes constant.
Answer
Correct option: C.
The particle moves at a constant velocity upto a time $t_0$ and then stops.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 511 Mark
____________ plays an important role in sustainable development.
  • A
    Biochemistry
  • B
    Nanochemistry
  • Green chemistry
  • D
    Inorganic chemistry
Answer
Correct option: C.
Green chemistry
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 521 Mark
Which of the following polymer is used to make blankets?
  • PAN
  • B
    Nylon-2-nylon-6
  • C
    Terylene
  • D
    Nylon-6, 6
Answer
Correct option: A.
PAN
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 531 Mark
Which of the following catalysts is used in preparation of terylene?
  • Zinc acetate and antimony trioxide
  • B
    Alkali
  • C
    Benzoyl peroxide
  • D
    Oxygen
Answer
Correct option: A.
Zinc acetate and antimony trioxide
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 541 Mark
Which among the following polymers belongs to class thermoplastic polymers?
  • A
    Bakelite
  • B
    Neoprene
  • C
    Terylene
  • Polythene
Answer
Correct option: D.
Polythene
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 551 Mark
Which of the following statement is NOT true about saccharic acid?
  • A
    It contains two carboxyl groups.
  • B
    It can be obtained from glucose.
  • It contains one carboxyl group and four hydroxyl groups.
  • D
    It can be obtained from gluconic acid.
Answer
Correct option: C.
It contains one carboxyl group and four hydroxyl groups.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 561 Mark
One mole of a carbohydrate on hydrolysis gives one mole of glucose and one mole of galactose. Identify the carbohydrate.
  • A
    Sucrose
  • Lactose
  • C
    Raffinose
  • D
    Maltose
Answer
Correct option: B.
Lactose
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 571 Mark
______ is the prosthetic group of glycoproteins.
  • Carbohydrates
  • B
    Coenzymes
  • C
    Lipids
  • D
    Pigments
Answer
Correct option: A.
Carbohydrates
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 581 Mark
When propanamide is treated with bromine and aqueous sodium hydroxide, the compound formed is ____________.
  • A
    1-propanamine
  • B
    propene
  • C
    bromopropane
  • ethanamine
Answer
Correct option: D.
ethanamine
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 591 Mark
Identify compound 'A' in the following reaction.

Image

  • A
    Cumene
  • Aniline
  • C
    Benzene
  • D
    Chlorobenzene
Answer
Correct option: B.
Aniline
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 601 Mark
Identify reagent 'A' in the following conversion?

$\ce{N-N Dimethyl aniline ->[A][273-278 K] 4-nitroso-N-N-dimethylaniline}$

  • Nitrous acid
  • B
    Nitric acid
  • C
    Hydrochloric acid
  • D
    Sulphuric acid
Answer
Correct option: A.
Nitrous acid
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 611 Mark
Identify product B in the following reaction.

$\ce{Aniline ->[NaNO2][HCl] A ->[KI] B}$

  • A
    Benzenediazonium iodide
  • B
    Benzyl iodide
  • lodobenzene
  • D
    Nitrobenzene
Answer
Correct option: C.
lodobenzene
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 621 Mark
Which of the following is a Wolf - Kishner reduction?
  • $\begin{array}{cc}
    \backslash\phantom{................}\backslash\phantom{............................}\backslash\phantom{..........}\\
    \ce{C = O ->[H2N-NH2][-H2O] C = N-NH2 ->[KOH/ethylene glycol][\Delta] CH2 + N2}\\
    /\phantom{................}/\phantom{............................}/\phantom{..........}\end{array}$
  • B
    $\ce{- C ≡ N + 2[H] ->[SnCl2][dil HCl] - CH = NH*HCl ->[H3O+] - CHO + NH4Cl}$
  • C
    $\ce{- COCl ->[H2][Pd-BaSO4] - CHO + HCl}$
  • D
    $\ce{- Co - + 4[H] ->[Zn-Hg/conc. HCl][\Delta] - CH2 - + H2O}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\begin{array}{cc}
\backslash\phantom{................}\backslash\phantom{............................}\backslash\phantom{..........}\\
\ce{C = O ->[H2N-NH2][-H2O] C = N-NH2 ->[KOH/ethylene glycol][\Delta] CH2 + N2}\\
/\phantom{................}/\phantom{............................}/\phantom{..........}\end{array}$
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 631 Mark
Following reaction is an example of ____________.

$\ce{Benzaldehyde ->[Nitration] {m}-Nitrobenzaldehyde}$

  • A
    nucleophilic substitution reaction
  • electrophilic substitution reaction
  • C
    electrophilic addition reaction
  • D
    nucleophilic addition reaction
Answer
Correct option: B.
electrophilic substitution reaction
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 641 Mark
Which of the following gives red precipitate with Fehling's solution?
  • Butanal
  • B
    Benzaldehyde
  • C
    Butanone
  • D
    Mesityl oxide
Answer
Correct option: A.
Butanal
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 651 Mark
Acetic anhydride is obtained from acetyl chloride by the reaction of ____________.
  • A
    $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4$
  • B
    $\mathrm{P}_2 \mathrm{O}_5$
  • $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COONa}$
  • D
    $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COONa}$
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 661 Mark
Which isomer of $C _4 H _{10} O$ is optically active?
  • A
    2-methylpropan-l-ol
  • B
    2-methylpropan-2-ol
  • C
    Butan-1-ol
  • Butan-2-ol
Answer
Correct option: D.
Butan-2-ol
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 671 Mark
Identify 'A' and 'B' in the following series of reactions.

Image

  • A
    A - Benzoic acid, B - Benzene
  • B
    A - Benzaldehyde, B - Benzoquinone
  • C
    A - Phenol, B - Salicyclic acid
  • A - Phenol, B - Benzoquinone
Answer
Correct option: D.
A - Phenol, B - Benzoquinone
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 681 Mark
In the Lucas test for alcohols, the appearance of turbidity is due to the formation of ____________.
  • A
    acid anhydride
  • B
    allyl chloride
  • C
    acid chloride
  • alkyl chloride
Answer
Correct option: D.
alkyl chloride
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 691 Mark
Identify the compound that gives 2, 5-dimethylhexane by reacting with sodium metal in presence of dry ether.
  • isobutyl bromide
  • B
    n-butyl bromide
  • C
    tert-butyl bromide
  • D
    sec-butyl bromide
Answer
Correct option: A.
isobutyl bromide
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 701 Mark
Identify major product 'B' in the following reaction.

$\ce{But-1-ene ->[HBr][Peroxide] A ->[AgCN][\Delta] B}$

  • A
    isobutyl cyanide
  • B
    sec-butyl isocyanide
  • C
    n-butyl cyanide
  • n-butyl isocyanide
Answer
Correct option: D.
n-butyl isocyanide
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 711 Mark
$\ce{C6H5CH2Cl + KCN(alc) -> X + Y}$Compounds X and Y are ____________.
  • A
    $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Cl}, \mathrm{KCl}$
  • B
    $\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_3, \mathrm{KCl}$
  • $\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CN}, \mathrm{KCl}$
  • D
    $\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_6, \mathrm{KCl}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CN}, \mathrm{KCl}$
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 721 Mark
Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
  • A
    $\mathrm{Cis}\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4 \mathrm{ClBr}\right]^{2+}$
  • B
    Trans $\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right) \mathrm{Cl}_2\right]$
  • C
    Cis $\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right)$
  • Trans $\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right]$
Answer
Correct option: D.
Trans $\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right]$
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 731 Mark
Which among the following is a correct formula of Bariumtetrachlorocuprate (ll)?
  • A
    $\mathrm{Ba}\left[\mathrm{CuCl}_2\right] \mathrm{Cl}_2$
  • $\mathrm{Ba}\left[\mathrm{CuCl}_4\right]$
  • C
    $\mathrm{Cu}\left[\mathrm{BaCl}_4\right]$
  • D
    $\mathrm{Cu}\left[\mathrm{BaCl}_2\right] \mathrm{Cl}_2$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\mathrm{Ba}\left[\mathrm{CuCl}_4\right]$
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 741 Mark
Identify cationic complex from the following.
  • A
    $\mathrm{K}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]$
  • ${\left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_2}$
  • C
    $\mathrm{K}_2\left[\mathrm{Hgl}_4\right]$
  • D
    $\left[\mathrm{Ni}(\mathrm{CO})_4\right]$
Answer
Correct option: B.
${\left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_2}$
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 751 Mark
Which of the following properties is NOT of lanthanoids?
  • A
    These elements can't form oxocations.
  • Most of the elements of these do not occur in nature but prepared in laboratory.
  • C
    In these differentiating electron enters in 4f-orbitals.
  • D
    Binding energy of 4f-orbitals is higher.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Most of the elements of these do not occur in nature but prepared in laboratory.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 761 Mark
Identify the element if it's expected electronic configuration is $[ Ar ] 3 d^{10} 4 s^2$
  • A
    Cd
  • Zn
  • C
    Hg
  • D
    Co
Answer
Correct option: B.
Zn
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 771 Mark
The major product obtained when aniline undergoes sulphonation using cone. sulphuric acid at 453-473 K is:
  • A

    Image
  • B

    Image
  • C

    Image

  • Image
Answer
Correct option: D.

Image
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 791 Mark
For the first order reaction A → B, the rate constant is $0.25 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$, if the concentration of A is reduced to half, the value of rate constant will be ________.
  • A
    $0.075 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
  • B
    $0.30 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
  • C
    $2.25 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
  • $0.25 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$0.25 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 801 Mark
What is the order of reaction if the unit of rate constant (k) is mol $dm ^{-3} s^{-1} ?$
  • A
    1
  • 0
  • C
    3
  • D
    2
Answer
Correct option: B.
0
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 811 Mark
During discharging the change taking place at cathode in lead accumulator is:
  • A
    $Pb _{\text {(aq.) }}^{2+}$ is oxidized to $PbO _{2(s)}$
  • B
    $Pb _{( s )}$ is oxidized to $Pb _{( aq .)}^{2+}$
  • $PbO _{2(s)}$ is reduced to $Pb _{( aq .)}^{2+}$
  • D
    $Pb _{(\text {aq. })}^{2+}$ is reduced to $Pb _{( s )}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$PbO _{2(s)}$ is reduced to $Pb _{( aq .)}^{2+}$
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 821 Mark
How much charge in coulombs is required for the reduction of one mole of $Al ^{3+}$ to Al ?
  • A
    $2.895 \times 10^4 C$
  • $2.895 \times 10^5 C$
  • C
    $1.930 \times 10^5 C$
  • D
    $1.930 \times 10^4 C$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$2.895 \times 10^5 C$
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 831 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
  • A
    $\Delta G^0 $ is an extensive property.
  • B
    Electrical work done in galvanic cell is equal to −$\Delta G^0$
  • C
    `"E"_"cell"^0` is an intensive property.
  • $E_{\text {cell }}$ must be negative for a cell reaction if it is spontaneous.
Answer
Correct option: D.
$E_{\text {cell }}$ must be negative for a cell reaction if it is spontaneous.
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 841 Mark
The enthalpy of formation of nitrogen dioxide is $+33.2 kJ mol^{-1}$. The enthalpy of the reaction $\ce{2N2_{(g)} + 4O2_{(g)} -> 4NO2_{(g)}}$; is ____________.
  • A
    +33.2 kJ
  • +132.8 kJ
  • C
    −33.2 kJ
  • D
    −66.4 kJ
Answer
Correct option: B.
+132.8 kJ
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 851 Mark
Which of the following salts do not undergo hydrolysis?
i. $CH _3 COONa$
ii. $CuSO _4$
iii. NaCl
iv. $NH _4 NO _3$
v. $K _2 SO _4$
  • iii and v
  • B
    i, ii and v
  • C
    iii, iv and v
  • D
    i and ii
Answer
Correct option: A.
iii and v
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 861 Mark
Which of the following set represents weak acids?
  • A
    $HCOOH , HCl , H _2 S$
  • B
    $CH _3 COOH , HI , H _2 CO _3$
  • C
    $HNO _3, HF _{,} H _2 SO _4$
  • $HCOOH , HF , H _2 S$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$HCOOH , HF , H _2 S$
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 871 Mark
In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to the water in the radiators of cars during winter. This results in ____________ of water.
  • A
    lowering of boiling point
  • B
    increase in the vapour pressure
  • lowering of freezing point
  • D
    elevation of the freezing point
Answer
Correct option: C.
lowering of freezing point
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 881 Mark
Relative lowering in vapour pressure depends on _______.
  • A
    nature of solute and solvent
  • mole fraction of solute
  • C
    nature of solute
  • D
    nature of solvent
Answer
Correct option: B.
mole fraction of solute
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 891 Mark
Which of the following crystal systems shows base-centred unit cell?
  • Orthorhombic
  • B
    Triclinic
  • C
    Hexagonal
  • D
    Cubic
Answer
Correct option: A.
Orthorhombic
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 901 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement about the two allotropic forms of selenium.
  • A
    Red form is metallic while grey form is nonmetallic.
  • Red form is nonmetallic while grey form is metallic.
  • C
    Both red and grey forms are metallic.
  • D
    Both red and grey forms are nonmetallic.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Red form is nonmetallic while grey form is metallic.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 911 Mark
Which of the following is a major product obtained in the reaction of isobutylene with hydrogen bromide?
  • A
    n-butyl bromide
  • B
    sec-butyl bromide
  • tert-butyl bromide
  • D
    Iso butyl bromide
Answer
Correct option: C.
tert-butyl bromide
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 921 Mark
Hybridisation of C-atom to which -OH group is attached in the below given compound is:Image
  • A
    $sp^2$
  • B
    $sp^3d^2$
  • C
    sp
  • $sp^3$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$sp^3$
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 931 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
  • A
    Gold sol is an example of macromolecular colloid.
  • B
    The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called electroosmosis.
  • C
    Argyrol is a gold sol used as an eye lotion.
  • Vanishing cream is an example to oil in water type of emulsion.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Vanishing cream is an example to oil in water type of emulsion.
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 941 Mark
Isochor is the graph plotted between ______.
  • A
    temperature on X-axis and volume on Y-axis at constant pressure.
  • temperature on X-axis and pressure on Y-axis at constant volume.
  • C
    reciprocal of volume on X-axis and pressure on Y-axis at constant temperature.
  • D
    pressure on X-axis and volume on Y-axis at constant temperature.
Answer
Correct option: B.
temperature on X-axis and pressure on Y-axis at constant volume.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 951 Mark
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
  • Dihydrogen is heavier than air and is water soluble.
  • B
    Dihydrogen burns with a pale blue flame.
  • C
    Dihydrogen is colourless, odourless and tasteless gas.
  • D
    Dihydrogen is a nonpolar and water insoluble gas.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Dihydrogen is heavier than air and is water soluble.
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 961 Mark
The sum of oxidation number of all atoms in $\ce{S2O^{2-}_3}$ ion is ______.
  • A
    + 7
  • - 2
  • C
    + 2
  • D
    + 5
Answer
Correct option: B.
- 2
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 971 Mark
Which of the following molecules has bond order zero?
  • A
    $O_2$
  • B
    $N_2$
  • $Ne_2$
  • D
    $H_2$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$Ne_2$
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 991 Mark
According to Bohr's theory, an electron can move only in those orbits for which its angular momentum is integral multiple of ____________.
  • A
    2h/π
  • B
    h/2πm
  • h/2π
  • D
    h/4π
Answer
Correct option: C.
h/2π
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1001 Mark
Boron has two isotopes ${ }^{10} B$ and ${ }^{11} B$ with atomic masses 10 and 11 , respectively. If its average atomic mass is 10.81 , the abundance of ${ }^{10} B$ is ..........
  • A
    20%
  • B
    80%
  • C
    81%
  • 19%
Answer
Correct option: D.
19%
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1011 Mark
When there is excessive sweating, retains water with the help of ______.
  • A
    Gastrin
  • B
    CCK
  • C
    ANP
  • ADH
Answer
Correct option: D.
ADH
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1021 Mark
Currently, ______ mass extinction is considered to be the progressing at an alarming rate due to the loss of biodiversity.
  • A
    fourth
  • sixth
  • C
    second
  • D
    fifth
Answer
Correct option: B.
sixth
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1031 Mark
____________ are the most abundantly found species of animals.
  • A
    Insects
  • B
    Vertebrates
  • C
    Molluscs
  • Invertebrates
Answer
Correct option: D.
Invertebrates
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1041 Mark
With reference to graph select the correct alternative
  • A
    Line B represents, log S= log Z + C log A
  • B
    Line B represents, log C= log A + Z log S
  • C
    Line $A$ represents, $S=C^2$
  • Line A represents, $S=C^z$
Answer
Correct option: D.
Line A represents, $S=C^z$
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1051 Mark
Which of the following trends is observed in species diversity with respect to latitude?
  • It decreases as we move away from the equator towards pole
  • B
    None of the above
  • C
    It is more in temperate regions
  • D
    It increases as we move away from the equator towards pole
Answer
Correct option: A.
It decreases as we move away from the equator towards pole
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1061 Mark
Where does secondary succession generally occur?
  • A
    Newly created pond
  • Degraded forest
  • C
    Newly cooled lava
  • D
    Bare rock
Answer
Correct option: B.
Degraded forest
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1071 Mark
Which of the following represents the correct order of succession observed in the aquatic habitat?
  • A
    Phytoplankton Scrub Rooted submerged plants Rooted floating angiosperms - Reed swamp - Marsh meadow - Trees
  • B
    Phytoplankton -Reed swamp - Rooted floating angiosperms - Rooted submerged plants- Marsh meadow - Scrub Trees
  • Phytoplankton - Rooted submerged plants - Rooted floating angiosperms - Reed swamp - Marsh meadow - Scrub - Trees
  • D
    Phytoplankton - Scrub - Rooted floating angiosperms - Rooted submerged plants Reed swamp - Marsh meadow - Trees
Answer
Correct option: C.
Phytoplankton - Rooted submerged plants - Rooted floating angiosperms - Reed swamp - Marsh meadow - Scrub - Trees
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1081 Mark
In which area is xerarch succession observed?
  • A
    Aquatic areas
  • B
    Marshy areas
  • Desert areas
  • D
    Terrestrial areas
Answer
Correct option: C.
Desert areas
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1091 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement I: Some snails and fish undergo hibernation to avoid summer heat.

Statement II: Polar bears undergo hibernation in winters as they are unable to migrate

  • A
    Both the statements are incorrect.
  • B
    Both the statements are correct.
  • Statement II is correct and I is incorrect.
  • D
    Statement I is correct and ll is incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Statement II is correct and I is incorrect.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1101 Mark
______ is the adaptation of an organism i which it matches its colour with its surroundings to get protected from predators.
  • A
    Commensalism
  • B
    Mimicry
  • C
    Brood parasitism
  • Camouflage
Answer
Correct option: D.
Camouflage
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1111 Mark
What does 'N' represent in the given equation of population density?$\left[N_{t+1}=N_t+[(B+I)-(D+E)]\right.$
  • A
    Mortality
  • B
    Natality
  • Population density
  • D
    New births
Answer
Correct option: C.
Population density
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1121 Mark
Polar bears undergo ____________ during winter.
  • Negative
  • B
    Slow
  • C
    Zero
  • D
    Rapid
Answer
Correct option: A.
Negative
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1131 Mark
Polar bears undergo ____________ during winter.
  • A
    regulation
  • B
    conformation
  • C
    dormancy
  • hibernation
Answer
Correct option: D.
hibernation
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1141 Mark
Identify the ecological organisation constituting a large regional terrestrial unit delimited by a specific climatic zone having major vegetation zone and the associated fauna.
  • A
    Ecology
  • Biome
  • C
    Species
  • D
    Population
Answer
Correct option: B.
Biome
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1151 Mark
Match the column I (PCR steps) and Column II (Temperature). Select the correct option.
Column I (PCR steps) Column II (Temperature)
i. Polymerization P. 40 - 60°C
ii. Denaturation Q. 70 - 75°C
iii. Primer annealing R. 90 - 98°C
S. 28 - 37°C
  • A
    i - R, ii - S, iii - P
  • B
    i - S, ii - R, iii - Q
  • i - Q, ii - R, iii - P
  • D
    i - P, ii - R, iii - S
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - Q, ii - R, iii - P
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1161 Mark
Identify the process by which bacteria protect their own DNA from the attack of restriction enzymes.
  • A
    They add formyl group to nitrogen bases at susceptible sites.
  • B
    They methylate phosphate group at susceptible sites.
  • They metbylate nitrogen bases at susceptible sites.
  • D
    They methylate sugar at susceptible sites.
Answer
Correct option: C.
They metbylate nitrogen bases at susceptible sites.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1171 Mark
From the following which one is NOT a feature of the plasmids?
  • A
    Transferable
  • B
    Circular structure
  • Single-stranded
  • D
    Independent replication
Answer
Correct option: C.
Single-stranded
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1181 Mark
On which of the following two core techniques modem biotechnology is based?
  • A
    Chemical engineering
  • B
    Genetic engineering
  • Both Genetic engineering and Chemical engineering.
  • D
    Physical engineering
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both Genetic engineering and Chemical engineering.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1191 Mark
______ are nitrogen fixing micro-organisms.
  • A
    Biocontrol agents
  • B
    S. cerevisiae
  • Diazotrophs
  • D
    Bioherbicides
Answer
Correct option: C.
Diazotrophs
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1201 Mark
Which of the following is/are the benefits of biogas?
  • All of these
  • B
    It burns with blue flame and without smoke.
  • C
    It is a cheap, safe and renewable source of energy.
  • D
    It is eco-friendly and does not cause pollution.
Answer
Correct option: A.
All of these
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1211 Mark
Identify the equipment which is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes.
  • A
    Sludge digester
  • B
    Industrial oven
  • C
    BOD incubator
  • Bioreactor
Answer
Correct option: D.
Bioreactor
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1221 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement/s.
  • A
    Some mushrooms and truffles contain fruiting bodies that are sugar and fat-free.
  • All of these
  • C
    Some mushrooms and truffles produce edible fruiting bodies.
  • D
    Some mushrooms and truffles have fruiting bodies that are rich in proteins, vitamins, minerals and amino acids.
Answer
Correct option: B.
All of these
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1231 Mark
Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to biofortification?
  • A
    It is a method of developing insect resistance crops.
  • It is a method of breeding crops to increase nutritional value.
  • C
    It is a method of developing disease resistance crops.
  • D
    It is a method of developing semi-dwarf crops.
Answer
Correct option: B.
It is a method of breeding crops to increase nutritional value.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1241 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
  • The infectious agents of typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis are transmitted through contaminated food and water.
  • B
    The causative agent of typhoid is Streptococcus.
  • C
    Malaria spreads through bite of Aedes mosquito.
  • D
    Trichophyton causes pneumonia
Answer
Correct option: A.
The infectious agents of typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis are transmitted through contaminated food and water.
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1251 Mark
Which of the following is the causative agent of malignant malaria?
  • A
    Plasmodium ovale
  • B
    Plasmodium vivax
  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • D
    Plasmodium malariae
Answer
Correct option: C.
Plasmodium falciparum
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1261 Mark
Which of the following disease can be treated using diethylcarbamazine citrate?
  • Filariasis
  • B
    Typhoid
  • C
    Ascariasis
  • D
    Malaria
Answer
Correct option: A.
Filariasis
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1271 Mark
Which type of resistance against pathogens does a human acquire through life?
  • All of the above
  • B
    Specific immunity
  • C
    Acquired immunity
  • D
    Adaptive immunity
Answer
Correct option: A.
All of the above
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1281 Mark
Identify the cells which release the antibodies.
  • Plasma cells
  • B
    Memory B-cells
  • C
    Suppressor T-cells
  • D
    Helper T-cells
Answer
Correct option: A.
Plasma cells
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1291 Mark
In acquired immunity there is a specific mechanism for each foreign molecule. This property is known as _______.
  • A
    Memory
  • B
    Diversity
  • C
    Discrimination between self and non-self
  • Specificity
Answer
Correct option: D.
Specificity
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1301 Mark
Which part of brain controls vomiting?
  • A
    Cerebellum
  • Medulla oblongata
  • C
    Diencephalon
  • D
    Cerebrum
Answer
Correct option: B.
Medulla oblongata
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1311 Mark
Subdural space is present between (i)____________ and (ii)____________.
  • i - arachnoid, ii - dura mater
  • B
    i - pia mater, ii - grey mater
  • C
    i - pia mater, ii - arachnoid
  • D
    i - grey mater, ii - white mater
Answer
Correct option: A.
i - arachnoid, ii - dura mater
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1321 Mark
Match the Column - I with Column - II:
Column I Column II
i. P - wave p. Depolarisation of ventricles
ii. QRS complex q. Repolarisation of ventricles
iii. T - wave r. Coronary ischemia
s. Development of atria
t. Repolarisation of atria
  • A
    i - p, ii - q, iii - t
  • i - s, ii - p, iii- q
  • C
    i - q, ii - r, iii - t
  • D
    i - s, ii - p, iii - r
Answer
Correct option: B.
i - s, ii - p, iii- q
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1331 Mark
Identify the properties of nerve fibres and choose the correct option.
$(i)$ Irritability
$(ii)$ Conductivity
$(iii)$ Synaptic fatigue
  • A
    $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$
  • $\text{i, ii,}$ and $\text{iii}$
  • C
    $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii}$
  • D
    $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\text{i, ii,}$ and $\text{iii}$
$\text{i, ii,}$ and $\text{iii}$
View full question & answer
MCQ 1341 Mark
____________ is the interconnection between two neurons or neuron with motor organ.
  • Synapse
  • B
    Axon
  • C
    Telodendrite
  • D
    Cyton
Answer
Correct option: A.
Synapse
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1351 Mark
The nervous system of Hydra ____________.
  • A
    lacks nerve net
  • both consists of sensory cells and nerve cells and consists of nerve cells distributed throughout the body
  • C
    consists of sensory cells and nerve cells
  • D
    consists of nerve cells distributed throughout the body
Answer
Correct option: B.
both consists of sensory cells and nerve cells and consists of nerve cells distributed throughout the body
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1361 Mark
Calculate the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is SL, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50mL.
  • A
    75 beats per minute
  • B
    25 beats per minute
  • 100 beats per minute
  • D
    50 beats per minute
Answer
Correct option: C.
100 beats per minute
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1371 Mark
Which of the following event occurs during atrial systole?
  • A
    Oxygenated blood enters left ventricle from left atrium.
  • B
    Deoxygenated blood enters right ventricle from right atrium.
  • C
    Oxygenated blood enters right ventricle from right atrium.
  • Both Deoxygenated blood enters right ventricle from right atrium and Oxygenated blood enters left ventricle from left atrium.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Both Deoxygenated blood enters right ventricle from right atrium and Oxygenated blood enters left ventricle from left atrium.
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1381 Mark
Match the items given in Column I (Valves) with those in Column II (Location) and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
i. Tricuspid valve a. Between left atrium and left ventricle
ii. Bicuspid valve b. Between right ventricle . and pulmonary artery.
iii. Semilunar valve c. Between right atrium and right ventricle
  • A
    i - a, ii - b, iii - c
  • B
    i - a, ii - c, iii - b
  • i - c, ii - a, iii - b
  • D
    i - b, ii - a, iii - c
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - c, ii - a, iii - b
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1391 Mark
The pharynx opens into trachea through an opening called ______ guarded by a cartilaginous flap called ______.
  • A
    vestibule, epiglottis
  • B
    epiglottis, glottis
  • glottis, epiglottis
  • D
    gullet, glottis
Answer
Correct option: C.
glottis, epiglottis
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1401 Mark
The partial pressure of oxygen of blood in pulmonary capillaries is $\text{i ........... mrn Hg}$ while in alveolar air it is $\text{ii ........ mm Hg}.$
  • A
    $45$ and $40$
  • B
    $95$ and $125$
  • C
    $90$ and $105$
  • $40$ and $104$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$40$ and $104$
$40$ and $104$
View full question & answer
MCQ 1411 Mark
With which of the following haemoglobin combines to form carboxyhaemoglobin?
  • A
    Carbon monoxide
  • B
    Carbonic acid
  • Oxygen
  • D
    Bicarbonate ions
Answer
Correct option: C.
Oxygen
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1421 Mark
Identify the CORRECT sequence of events for the transport of respiratory gases.
  • A
    Cellular respiration → external respiration → internal respiration
  • B
    Internal respiration → cellular respiration → external respiration
  • External respiration → internal respiration → cellular respiration
  • D
    Internal respiration → external respiration → cellular respiration
Answer
Correct option: C.
External respiration → internal respiration → cellular respiration
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1431 Mark
Which phytohormone is used to prevent dwarfness?
  • A
    Auxin
  • Gibberellic acid
  • C
    Cytokinin
  • D
    Kinetin
Answer
Correct option: B.
Gibberellic acid
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1441 Mark
Which fungus releases gibberellin?
  • A
    Aspergillus
  • B
    Gracilaria
  • C
    Gelidium
  • Gibberella fujikuroi
Answer
Correct option: D.
Gibberella fujikuroi
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1461 Mark
In which part of plant does auxin synthesis occur?
  • Meristematic regions of plant
  • B
    Vascular tissues
  • C
    Cambium
  • D
    Root system
Answer
Correct option: A.
Meristematic regions of plant
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1471 Mark
Formation of inter-fascicular cambium is aided by which hormone?
  • A
    ABA
  • B
    Auxin
  • C
    Gibberellin
  • Cytokinin
Answer
Correct option: D.
Cytokinin
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1481 Mark
In soil, ______is available for absorption by plant roots.
  • A
    gravitational water
  • B
    combined water
  • capillary water
  • D
    hygroscopic water
Answer
Correct option: C.
capillary water
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1491 Mark
______ refers to the microenvironment surrounding the root from which plants absorb water.
  • A
    Stratosphere
  • B
    Mesosphere
  • Rhizosphere
  • D
    Zoosphere
Answer
Correct option: C.
Rhizosphere
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1511 Mark
Maximum absorption of water takes place in the zone of ____________ in plants.
  • A
    root cap
  • B
    root apex
  • C
    meristematic tissue
  • root hair
Answer
Correct option: D.
root hair
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1521 Mark
From the following which is NOT a property of water?
  • A
    It is a best aqueous medium for all biochemical reactions occurring in the cells.
  • B
    It is a best transporting medium for dissolved minerals and food molecules.
  • It provides energy necessary for most of the chemical reactions.
  • D
    It is a best solvent for most of the solutes.
Answer
Correct option: C.
It provides energy necessary for most of the chemical reactions.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1531 Mark
Australopithecus was first discovered in which place?
  • A
    Neanderthal valley in Gennany
  • B
    Java in Africa
  • C
    Haritalyangar in Himachal Pradesh
  • Taung in South Africa
Answer
Correct option: D.
Taung in South Africa
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1541 Mark
The first fossils of Dtyopithecu were found in ______.
  • A
    Fayum deposits of Egypt
  • Lake Victoria of Africa
  • C
    Taung in South Africa
  • D
    Shivalik Hills in India
Answer
Correct option: B.
Lake Victoria of Africa
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1551 Mark
Industrial melanism is one of the best example for ____________.
  • A
    reproductive isolation
  • B
    mutation
  • C
    speciation
  • natural selection
Answer
Correct option: D.
natural selection
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1561 Mark
______ is the separation of the population of a particular species into smaller units which prevents interbreeding between them.
  • Isolation
  • B
    Adaptive radiation
  • C
    Natural selection
  • D
    Industrial melanism
Answer
Correct option: A.
Isolation
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1571 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
  • A
    Industrial revolution was an advantage for black winged moths.
  • Black sooty smoke made black winged moths easy victims for predatory birds.
  • C
    After industrial revolution the number of white winged moths reduced drastically.
  • D
    White winged moths camouflaged well with the lichen covered trees.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Black sooty smoke made black winged moths easy victims for predatory birds.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1581 Mark
____________ refers to the process of copying of genetic information from one (template) strand of DNA into a single stranded RNA transcript.
  • A
    Translocation
  • Transcription
  • C
    Transformation
  • D
    Translation
Answer
Correct option: B.
Transcription
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1591 Mark
For which of the following purpose agarose gel electrophoresis technique is used?
  • A
    Separation of double helix DNA into single strand
  • Separation of DNA into individual bands
  • C
    Production of many copies of DNA
  • D
    Cutting of DNA into small fragments
Answer
Correct option: B.
Separation of DNA into individual bands
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1601 Mark
The octamer of histone protein is made of ______.
  • H2A, H2B, H3, H4
  • B
    H3A,H3A,H3B,H4B
  • C
    Hl, H2, H3, H4
  • D
    H3, H4
Answer
Correct option: A.
H2A, H2B, H3, H4
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1611 Mark
Study the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement I: In the experiment performed by Hershey and Chase, viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus medium contained radioactive DNA, but not radioactive protein.

Statement II: DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein lacks phosphorus

  • A
    Both the statements are incorrect.
  • Both the statements are correct.
  • C
    Statement ii is incorrect whereas statement i is correct.
  • D
    Statement i is incorrect whereas statement ii is correct.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both the statements are correct.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1621 Mark
Through which of the following experiments DNA was proved to be the genetic material in E. coli and bacteriophage?
  • A
    Griffith's experiment
  • B
    Miescher's experiment
  • Hershey-Chase's experiment
  • D
    Meselson-Stahl's experiment
Answer
Correct option: C.
Hershey-Chase's experiment
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1631 Mark
Which of the following statement/s are INCORRECT with respect to crossing over?

i. Crossing over produces recombinations of genes by interchanging and exchanging corresponding segments between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

ii. Crossing over occurs during zygotene of prophase I of meiosis.

  • A
    Statement i is incorrect while statement ii is correct.
  • Statement i is correct while statement ii is incorrect.
  • C
    Both statements i and ii are correct.
  • D
    Both statements i and ii are incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Statement i is correct while statement ii is incorrect.
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1641 Mark
In ____________, one could get same genotypic and phenotypic ratio.
  • A
    back cross
  • B
    dominance
  • incomplete dominance
  • D
    test cross
Answer
Correct option: C.
incomplete dominance
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1651 Mark
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to individuals with blood group 'O'?
  • They lack 'A' and 'B' antigens on the surface of their RBCs and show presence of both 'a' and 'b' antibodies in their plasma.
  • B
    They have 'A' antigen on the surface of their RBCs and b antibodies in their plasma.
  • C
    They have 'B' antigen on the surface of their RBCs and 'a' antibodies in their plasma.
  • D
    They have Both antigen 'A' and 'B' on the surface of their RBCs and no antibodies in their plasma.
Answer
Correct option: A.
They lack 'A' and 'B' antigens on the surface of their RBCs and show presence of both 'a' and 'b' antibodies in their plasma.
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1661 Mark
______ refers to the ratio of the offsprings produced in the $F_2$ and subsequent generation with respect to their genetic make-up.
  • A
    Complementary ratio
  • B
    Epistatic ratio
  • Genotypic ratio
  • D
    Phenotypic ratio
Answer
Correct option: C.
Genotypic ratio
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1671 Mark
The appearance of new combinations in the $F_2$ generation of a dihybrid cross proves the law of ______.
  • A
    Purity of gametes
  • B
    Dominance
  • Independent assortment
  • D
    Segregation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Independent assortment
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1681 Mark
Human skin colour is an example of ______
  • A
    Intragenic interaction
  • B
    Interallelic interaction
  • C
    Pleiotropy
  • Quantitative inheritance
Answer
Correct option: D.
Quantitative inheritance
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1691 Mark
During which process is the egg released from the Graafian follicle?
  • A
    Atresia
  • B
    Parturition
  • Ovulation
  • D
    Menarche
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ovulation
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1701 Mark
The pair of thin folds present inner to the labia majora is ____________.
  • A
    Mons pubis
  • B
    Hymen
  • C
    Vestibule
  • Labia minora
Answer
Correct option: D.
Labia minora
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1711 Mark
Identify the approximate number of lobules present in the testis.
  • A
    350 - 450
  • 200 - 300
  • C
    150 - 250
  • D
    50 - 100
Answer
Correct option: B.
200 - 300
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1721 Mark
In the given diagram represents the

Image

  • A
    Tunica albuginea
  • B
    Rete testis
  • Seminiferous tubule
  • D
    Tunica vaginalis
Answer
Correct option: C.
Seminiferous tubule
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1731 Mark
The given diagram represents T. S of

Image

  • Testis
  • B
    Ovary
  • C
    Graafian follicle
  • D
    Thyroid gland
Answer
Correct option: A.
Testis
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1741 Mark
Due to presence of which of the following chemical component, pollen grains can remain well preserved in fossil?
  • Sporopollenin
  • B
    None of these
  • C
    lntine
  • D
    Germ pore
Answer
Correct option: A.
Sporopollenin
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1751 Mark
Which of the following type of plants are nocturnal and open their flower during night?
  • A
    Omithophilous
  • B
    Entomophilous
  • Chiropterophilous
  • D
    Hydrophilous
Answer
Correct option: C.
Chiropterophilous
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1761 Mark
The diagram given below represents an anatropous ovule. Identify labels 'X' and 'Y' in.

Image

  • A
    X- Egg; Y- Male gamete
  • X-Antipodals; Y-Secondary nucleus
  • C
    X- Synergid; Y- Egg cell
  • D
    X- Nucellus; Y- Male gamete
Answer
Correct option: B.
X-Antipodals; Y-Secondary nucleus
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1771 Mark
In the following case mention the correct ratio of pollen mother cells, generative cells, vegetative cells, and male gametes produced by the microsporangium.

A total of 168 pollen grains with 14 chromosomes in each pollen grain are released from a mature microsporangium.

  • 1:4:4:8
  • B
    9:3:3:4
  • C
    1:1:1:4
  • D
    1:2:1:4
Answer
Correct option: A.
1:4:4:8
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1781 Mark
______ refers to the flower in which gynoecium possesses many free carpels.
  • A
    Syncarpous flower
  • B
    Uniovulate flower
  • Apocarpous flower
  • D
    Multiovulate flower
Answer
Correct option: C.
Apocarpous flower
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1791 Mark
Which of the following are the chemical components of the wall of pollen tube?
  • A
    Only sporopollenin
  • B
    Pectin and Sporopollenin
  • Cellulose and Pectin
  • D
    Lignin and Pectin
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cellulose and Pectin
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1801 Mark
Identify the chromosome number of the endosperm in the following case. In an angiosperm a female plant having 2n = 24 is crossed with a male plant having 2n = 12.
  • A
    20
  • 30
  • C
    10
  • D
    24
Answer
Correct option: B.
30
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1811 Mark
The loop of Henle and collecting ducts lie in the ____________ of the kidney.
  • A
    pelvis
  • medulla
  • C
    minor calyx
  • D
    cortex
Answer
Correct option: B.
medulla
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1821 Mark
Where does facultative reabsorption of sodium ions and water take place?
  • A
    Proximal convoluted tubule
  • B
    Ascending limb of loop of Henle
  • Distal convoluted tubule
  • D
    Descending limb of the loop of Henle
Answer
Correct option: C.
Distal convoluted tubule
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1831 Mark
The mode of excretion observed in spiders is called ____________.
  • A
    uricotelism
  • B
    ureotelism
  • guanotelism
  • D
    ammonotelism
Answer
Correct option: C.
guanotelism
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1841 Mark
The CORRECT match is ______.
  • A
    JGA - Stimulates the secretion of ADH
  • B
    Renie's loop- Reabsorption of glucose
  • DCT - Secretion of $H ^{+}$and $K ^{+}$ions.
  • D
    Podocytes- Reabsorption of water and Na+ ions.
Answer
Correct option: C.
DCT - Secretion of $H ^{+}$and $K ^{+}$ions.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1851 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT match.
  • A
    Potassium - Urine
  • Volatile substances in spices - Sweat
  • C
    Carbon dioxide - Lungs
  • D
    Vitamins - Urine
Answer
Correct option: B.
Volatile substances in spices - Sweat
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1861 Mark
Complete the analogy with respect to Gross Calorific Value.

Fats: 9.45 :: Carbohydrates : ______

  • A
    9.0
  • B
    5.45
  • 4.1
  • D
    9.45
Answer
Correct option: C.
4.1
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1871 Mark
Identify the enzyme 'x' present in intestinal juice.

$\ce{Trypsinogen ->['x'][ alkaline medium]Trypsin}$

  • A
    Lipase
  • B
    Dipeptidase
  • C
    Chymotrypsin
  • Enterokinase
Answer
Correct option: D.
Enterokinase
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1881 Mark
Which salivary gland is present below the lower jaw?
  • A
    Sub-lingual gland
  • B
    Parotid gland
  • C
    Sub-maxillary gland
  • Sub-mandibular gland
Answer
Correct option: D.
Sub-mandibular gland
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1891 Mark
(i)______ and (ii)______ form the common bile duct.
  • i - hepatic duct, ii - duct of gall bladder
  • B
    i - pancreatic duct, ii - salivary duct
  • C
    i - duct of gall bladder, ii - pancreatic duct
  • D
    i - hepatic duct, ii - pancreatic duct
Answer
Correct option: A.
i - hepatic duct, ii - duct of gall bladder
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1901 Mark
Identify the process in which complex, nondiffusible and non-absorbable food substances are converted into simple, diffusible and assimilable substances.
  • A
    Assimilation
  • B
    Ingestion
  • Digestion
  • D
    Egestion
Answer
Correct option: C.
Digestion
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1911 Mark
Synthesis of Adenosine triphosphate during electron transfer system refers to ______.
  • A
    substrate level phosphorylation
  • B
    photophosphorylation
  • C
    reductive phosphorylation
  • oxidative phosphorylation
Answer
Correct option: D.
oxidative phosphorylation
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1921 Mark
Peptide bond Links carboxylic group with amino group of consecutive amino acids along with the release of ______.
  • $H _2 O$
  • B
    $O _2$
  • C
    $N_2$
  • D
    $NH _2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$H _2 O$
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1931 Mark
Identify the end product of the glycolysis process.
  • $CH _3 COCOOH$
  • B
    $CH _3 CH _2 COOH$
  • C
    $CH _3 CH _2 OHCOOH$
  • D
    $CH _2 HCOH - COOH$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$CH _3 COCOOH$
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1941 Mark
Complete the analogy.Transport of $CO_2$ by plasma : 7% :: Transport of $CO_2$ by bicarbonate ions: ____________.
  • A
    50%
  • B
    20%
  • C
    45%
  • 70%
Answer
Correct option: D.
70%
D
View full question & answer
MCQ 1951 Mark
Read the following statements and select the CORRECT option.Statement I: In oxidative phosphorylation ATP is synthesized by using the energy released during the oxidation of substrates like $NADH^{+} H^{+}$ and $FADH_2$.
Statement II: Substrate-level phosphorylation is a direct phosphorylation of ADP by transfer of a phosphate group from any suitable substrate.
  • A
    Statement I is correct.
  • B
    Statement II is correct.
  • Both statements I and II are correct.
  • D
    Both statements I and ll are incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both statements I and II are correct.
C
View full question & answer
MCQ 1961 Mark
____________ bonds are absent in DNA.
  • A
    Hydrogen bonds
  • Peptide bond
  • C
    Glycosidic bonds
  • D
    Phosphodiester bonds
Answer
Correct option: B.
Peptide bond
B
View full question & answer
MCQ 1971 Mark
Proteins are ______ of amino acids.
  • heteropolymers
  • B
    dimers
  • C
    homopolymers
  • D
    monomers
Answer
Correct option: A.
heteropolymers
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1981 Mark
Identify the type of fatty acid that is represented in the following structure.

Image

  • Unsaturated fatty acid
  • B
    Amphipathic fatty acid
  • C
    Saturated fatty acid
  • D
    Glycerol
Answer
Correct option: A.
Unsaturated fatty acid
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 1991 Mark
Monosaccharides are ______ in nature.
  • crystalline
  • B
    insoluble
  • C
    amorphous
  • D
    tasteless
Answer
Correct option: A.
crystalline
A
View full question & answer
MCQ 2001 Mark
Which enzymes would work sequentially on potatoes consumed by an individual?
  • A
    Chymotrypsinogen → Salivary amylase → Trypsinogen.
  • B
    Maltase → Lipase → Nucleases
  • C
    Trypsin → Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase
  • Salivary amylase → Pancreatic amylase → Disaccharidases
Answer
Correct option: D.
Salivary amylase → Pancreatic amylase → Disaccharidases
D
View full question & answer