MCQ 11 Mark
To get an output X = 1 from the following logic circuit, the input must be ____________.
MCQ 21 Mark
A change of 9.0 mA in the emitter current brings a change of 8.9 mA in the collector current. The value of current gain β will be ______.
MCQ 31 Mark
In an npn transistor, the base current is 100 µA and the collector current is 10 mA. The emitter current is ______.
MCQ 41 Mark
If radius of the `{:(27),(13):}` Al nucleus is taken to be $R_AL$ then the radius of `{:(125), (53):}` Te nucleus is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 51 Mark
How many moles of electrons are required for reduction of 9 moles of $Cr ^{3+}$ to Cr ?
View full question & answer→MCQ 61 Mark
If wavelength for a wave is `lambda $= 6000 \mathring A$,` then wave number will be ____________.
- A
$16.6 \times 10^7 m^{-1}$
- B
$166 \times 10^8 m^{-1}$
- C
$1.66 \times 10^7 m^{-1}$
- ✓
$1.66 \times 10^6 m^{-1}$
AnswerCorrect option: D. $1.66 \times 10^6 m^{-1}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 71 Mark
When the work function of a metal increases, maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons ____________.
- A
- B
first decreases and then increases
- ✓
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 81 Mark
When a certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength '`lambda`', the stopping potential for photoelectric effect is $'3V_o$'. If the same surface is illuminated with a light of wavelength '`2 lambda`', the stopping potential is found as $'V_o$'. The threshold wavelength for this surface is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 91 Mark
In photoelectric effect, for a light of different intensities but of same frequency, the stopping potential for a given metal is ____________.
MCQ 101 Mark
In series LCR circuit, resistance is 18 `Omega` and impedance is 33 `Omega`. An r.m.s. voltage of 220 V is applied across the circuit. The true power consumed in a.c. circuit is ____________.
MCQ 111 Mark
In a series A.C. circuit, $R=200^{\circ}$ Omega', $X_L=400^{\circ}$ Omega` and $X_C=200^{\circ}$ Omega`. The phase difference between the applied e.m.f. and the current will be ..........
- ✓
$45^{\circ}$
- B
$37^{\circ}$
- C
$90^{\circ}$
- D
$0$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $45^{\circ}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 121 Mark
The r.m.s. value of induced voltage in a coil of 25 turns each of area 30 sq. cm. rotating at 2000 r.p.m. about an axis at right angles to magnetic field is $\left(B=5 \times 10^{-4} Wb / m ^2\right)$ ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 131 Mark
Assertion: A transfonner cannot work on D.C. supply.
Reason: D.C. changes neither in magnitude nor in direction.
- A
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
- B
If assertion is true but reason is false.
- ✓
If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
- D
If assertion is false but reason is true.
AnswerCorrect option: C. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
View full question & answer→MCQ 141 Mark
The current in coil changes from 0.6 A to 3 A in 0.06 s inducing a voltage of 8 V across it. Find initial energy stored in the coil.
MCQ 151 Mark
A cycle wheel of radius 0.6 m is rotated with constant angular velocity of 15 rad/s in a region of magnetic field of 0.2 T which is perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The e.m.f generated between its center and the rim is, ____________.
MCQ 161 Mark
Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are `epsilon_"r"` and `µ_"r"` respectively. Which of the following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?
- A
`epsilon_"r" = 1.5,` `µ_"r" = 1.5`
- B
`epsilon_"r" = 0.5,` `µ_"r" = 0.5`
- C
`epsilon_"r" = 0.5,` `µ_"r" = 1.5`
- ✓
`epsilon_"r" = 1.5,` `µ_"r" = 0.5`
AnswerCorrect option: D. `epsilon_"r" = 1.5,` `µ_"r" = 0.5`
View full question & answer→MCQ 171 Mark
A particle of charge 'q' and mass 'm' moves in a circular orbit of radius 'r' with angular speed `omega`. The ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to that of its angular momentum is ____________.
- A
`("q" omega"r"^2)/(2"m")`
- ✓
- C
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 181 Mark
An iron rod is placed parallel to magnetic field of intensity 4000 A/m. The magnetic flux through the rod is $8 \times 10^{-4}$ Wb and its cross-sectional area is $4 cm^{2}$ . The magnetic permeability of the rod in Wb/A - m is ____________.
- ✓
$5 \times 10^{-4}$
- B
$5 \times 10^{-6}$
- C
$5 \times 10^{-1}$
- D
$5 \times 10^{-2}$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $5 \times 10^{-4}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 191 Mark
In an atom, electron of charge (-e) perform U.C.M. around a stationary positively charged nucleus, with period of revolution 'T'. If 'r' is the radius of the orbit of the electron and 'v' is the orbital velocity, then the circulating current (I) is proportional to ____________.
- A
$v^1 r^1 e^{-1}$
- ✓
$e^1 v^1 r^{-1}$
- C
$e^1 r^1 v^{-1}$
- D
$e^1 r^{-1} v^{-1}$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $e^1 v^1 r^{-1}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 201 Mark
Magnetic induction produced at the centre of a circular loop carrying current is 'B'. The magnetic moment of the loop of radius 'R' is $\left(\mu_0=\right.$ permeability of free space) ____________.
- ✓
$`(2pi"BR"^3)/(mu_0)`$
- B
$`(2pi"BR"^2)/(mu_0)`$
- C
$`("BR"^2)/(2pimu_0)`$
- D
$`("BR"^3)/(2pimu_0)`$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $`(2pi"BR"^3)/(mu_0)`$
View full question & answer→MCQ 211 Mark
A current 'I' is flowing along an infinite, straight wire, in the positive Z-direction and the same current is flowing along a similar parallel wire 5 m apart, in the negative Z-direction. A point P is at a perpendicular distance 3 m from the first wire and 4 m from the second. What will be magnitude of the magnetic field B at P?
MCQ 221 Mark
A triangular loop of side `l` carries a current I. It is placed in a magnetic field B such that the plane of the loop is in the direction of B. The torque on the loop is ____________.
MCQ 231 Mark
Two resistances prepared from the wire of the same material having diameters in the ratio 2 : 1 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1 are connected in the left gap and right gap of Wheatstone's meter bridge respectively. The distance of the null point from the left end of the wire is ______
MCQ 241 Mark
The metre bridge works on the principle of ______.
MCQ 251 Mark
According the Kirchhoff's law, in any analytic circuit, if the direction of current is assumed opposite, then the value of current will be ____________.
MCQ 261 Mark
The charge on the capacitor of capacitance 4µF in the circuit (figure) is ______
MCQ 271 Mark
A capacitor $C_1=4 \mu F$ is connected is series with another capacitor $C_2=1 \mu F$. The combination is connected across d.c. source of 200 V . The ratio of potential across $C_2$ to that across $C_1$ is .......
View full question & answer→MCQ 281 Mark
Two sources of light 0.5 mm apart are placed at a distance of 2.4 m and wavelength of light is 5000 Å. The phase difference between the two light waves interfering on the screen at a point at a distance 3 mm from central bright band is ____________.
MCQ 291 Mark
In Young's experiment, the distance between the slits is doubled and the distance between the slit and screen is reduced to half, then the fringe width ____________.
AnswerCorrect option: D. will become $1/4^{th}$ times
View full question & answer→MCQ 301 Mark
The sequence of harmonics of a pipe open at one end and closed at the other end is 250 Hz and 350 Hz, The resonating length of the air column in its fundamental mode will be ______
(velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s)
MCQ 311 Mark
Two travelling waves, $y _1= A \sin [ k ( x + ct )]$ and $y _2= A \sin [ k ( x - ct )]$ are superposed on a string. The distance between adjacent nodes is ............
View full question & answer→MCQ 321 Mark
When a mass is hung from a light spring, the spring extends by 10 cm. If the mass is pulled down and let go, it executes S.H.M. with a time period $(g = 10 m/s^2)$ ____________.
- A
that cannot be found as the mass of the body and the force constant of the spring are not given
- B
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 331 Mark
The distance covered by a particle undergoing SHM in one time period is (amplitude = A) ____________.
MCQ 341 Mark
ΔU is equal to ____________ work.
MCQ 351 Mark
One blackbody at temperature T is surrounded by another blackbody at temperate $T_1\left(T_1<T\right)$.At T, the radiation emitted by inner blackbody per unit area per second is proportional to ____________.
- A
sum of fourth powers of temperature of the bodies
- ✓
difference of fourth powers of temperature of two bodies
- C
difference of temperature of two blackbodies
- D
fourth power of difference of temperature of two black - bodies
AnswerCorrect option: B. difference of fourth powers of temperature of two bodies
View full question & answer→MCQ 361 Mark
The energy spectrum of a black body exhibits a maximum around a wavelength '`lambda`'. The temperature of a black body is now changed such that the energy is maximum around a wavelength 3`lambda`/4. The power radiated by a black body will now increase by a factor of ______.
MCQ 371 Mark
Two small spherical metal balls, having equal masses, are made from materials of densities `rho_1` and`rho_2 (rho_1 = 8rho_2)` and have radii of 1 mm and 2 mm, respectively, they are made to fall vertically (from rest) in a viscous medium whose coefficient of viscosity equals `eta` and whose density is `0.1rho_2` The ratio of their terminal velocities would be, ____________.
MCQ 381 Mark
The speed at which the flow of water in a long cylindrical pipe of diameter 6 cm becomes turbulent is ______(The viscosity of water $= 1 \times 10^{-3}$ Pa.s and for the onset of turbulent flow in a long cylindrical pipe, Reynolds number = 3000)
View full question & answer→MCQ 391 Mark
A charged particle (charge = q: mass = m) is rotating in a circle of radius 'R' with uniform speed 'v'. The ratio of its magnetic moment (M) to the angular momentum (L) is ______
MCQ 401 Mark
A cyclist with combined mass 80 kg goes around a curved road with a uniform speed 20 m/s. He has to bend inward by an angle $`theta` = tan^{-1}$ (0.50) with the vertical. The force of friction acting at the point of contact of tyres and road surface is______.[g = 10 m/s2 ]
View full question & answer→MCQ 411 Mark
Semiconductors formed by doping germanium (Ge) with aluminium (Z = 13) and antimony (Z = 51) are ______.
- A
both p-type semiconductors.
- B
intrinsic semiconductors.
- C
n-type and p-type semiconductors respectively.
- ✓
p-type and n-type semiconductors respectively.
AnswerCorrect option: D. p-type and n-type semiconductors respectively.
View full question & answer→MCQ 421 Mark
When an electric dipole p is placed in a uniform electric field E then at what angle the value of torque will be maximum?
MCQ 431 Mark
In the biprism experiment, fringes are obtained using monochromatic light. The distance between the $5^{th}$ bright band and $9^{th}$ dark band on the same side of the central bright band, in terms of the fringe width 'X' is ______
View full question & answer→MCQ 441 Mark
The following figure shows the shape of part of a long string in which transverse waves are produced by attaching one end of the slring to tuning fork of frequency 300 Hz. The velocity of the waves is ____________.
- A
$1.5 m s ^{-1}$
- B
$2.5 m s ^{-1}$
- ✓
$1.2 m s ^{-1}$
- D
$2.0 m s ^{-1}$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $1.2 m s ^{-1}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 451 Mark
Temperature and Heat are ______
- ✓
closely related quantities but they are not the same things.
- B
- C
- D
measured in the same unit.
AnswerCorrect option: A. closely related quantities but they are not the same things.
View full question & answer→MCQ 461 Mark
The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is $1.96 m / s ^2$. If it is safe to jump from a height of 3 m on tbe earth, the corresponding height on the planet will be ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 471 Mark
A Diwali cracker releases 25 gram gas per second, with a speed of $400 ms^{-1}$ after explosion. The force exerted by gas on the cracker is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 481 Mark
Which of the following is the correct order of forces?
- A
Weak force < gravitational force < electrostatic force < strong nuclear force
- ✓
Gravitational force < weak force < electrostatic force < strong nuclear force
- C
Weak force < gravitational force < strong nuclear force < electrostatic force
- D
Gravitational force < electrostatic force < weak force < strong nuclear force
AnswerCorrect option: B. Gravitational force < weak force < electrostatic force < strong nuclear force
View full question & answer→MCQ 491 Mark
A cyclist is riding with a speed of 43.2 km/h. As he approaches a circular turn on the road of radius 60 m, he applies brakes and reduces his speed at constant rate of $1.8 ms^{-2}$. The magnitude of the net acceleration of the cyclist is ______.
- A
$1.5 ms^{-2}$
- B
$0.5 ms^{-2}$
- C
$1 ms^{-2}$
- ✓
$3 ms^{-2}$
AnswerCorrect option: D. $3 ms^{-2}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 501 Mark
Assertion: The average velocity of the object over an interval of time is either smaller than or equal to the average speed of the object over the same interval.
Reason: Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.
- A
Assertion is False, Reason is True.
- B
Assertion is True, Reason is False.
- ✓
Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
- D
Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion.
AnswerCorrect option: C. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
View full question & answer→MCQ 511 Mark
In which of the following nanomaterial, all three dimensions are less than 100 nm?
MCQ 521 Mark
Identify the monomers used in preparation of PHBV polymer.
- A
Glycine and ω amino caproic acid
- B
Lactic acid and glycolic acid
- ✓
3-Hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
- D
Styrene and glycolic acid
AnswerCorrect option: C. 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
View full question & answer→MCQ 531 Mark
Which among the following polymers is an example of addition polymer?
MCQ 541 Mark
Which among the following catalysts is used in the preparation of dacron?
- A
- ✓
Zinc acetate and antimony trioxide
- C
- D
Titanium chloride and triethyl aluminium
AnswerCorrect option: B. Zinc acetate and antimony trioxide
View full question & answer→MCQ 551 Mark
Which among the following is a product of hydrolysis of one mole raffinose?
- A
- B
1 moles Fructose + 2 moles Glucose
- C
2 moles Glucose + 1 mole Fructose + 1 mole Galactose
- ✓
1 mole Glucose + 1 mole Fructose + 1 mole Galactose
AnswerCorrect option: D. 1 mole Glucose + 1 mole Fructose + 1 mole Galactose
View full question & answer→MCQ 561 Mark
What is the molecular formula of glyceraldehyde?
- A
$C _3 O _3 H _8$
- ✓
$C _3 O _3 H _6$
- C
$C _4 O _3 H _6$
- D
$C _2 O _2 H _2$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $C _3 O _3 H _6$
View full question & answer→MCQ 571 Mark
When 2 moles of stachyose is hydrolyzed, the number of moles of galactose obtained is ____________.
MCQ 581 Mark
Which one of the following methods is NOT used for the synthesis of amines?
- ✓
- B
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
- C
- D
Hofmann bromamide degradation
View full question & answer→MCQ 591 Mark
$\ce{X ->[Sn/HCl] Propan-2-amine}$ Compound X is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 601 Mark
Which of the following reagents is used in Hofmann's elimination reaction of amines?
AnswerCorrect option: A. $Ag _2 O / H _2 O , \Delta$
View full question & answer→MCQ 611 Mark
Which among the following is the strongest acid?
- A
$FCH _2 CH _2 COOH$
- ✓
$CH _3 CH ( F ) COOH$
- C
$ClCH _2 CH _2 COOH$
- D
$CH _3 CH _2 COOH$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $CH _3 CH ( F ) COOH$
View full question & answer→MCQ 621 Mark
The first oxidation product of secondary alcohols is ____________.
MCQ 631 Mark
Identify the functional group in the product formed. $\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{...........}\ce{O}\\
\phantom{...........}||\\
\ce{C2H5 - N - H + CH3 - C - Cl ->[Pyridine][-HCl]}\\
|\phantom{......................}\\
\ce{C2H5}\phantom{..................}
\end{array}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 641 Mark
Identify 'A' in the following reaction: $\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{...........}\ce{O}\\
\phantom{...........}||\\
\ce{2A + (C6H5CH2)2 Cd -> 2CH3 - C - CH2 - C6H5 + CdCl2}\end{array}$
- A
$\ce{C6H5 - CH2 - Cl}$
- ✓
$\ce{CH3 - CO - Cl}$
- C
$\ce{C6H5 - CO - Cl}$
- D
$\ce{CH3 - Mg - Cl}$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $\ce{CH3 - CO - Cl}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 651 Mark
To prepare ethanol from methyl magnesium bromide, the other reagent required is ____________.
- A
$CH _3 COCH _3$
- B
$CH _3 CH _2 CHO$
- ✓
$HCHO$
- D
$CH _3 CHO$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $HCHO$
View full question & answer→MCQ 661 Mark
Identify the alcohol that reacts immediately with Lucas reagent?
MCQ 671 Mark
Which of the following compounds does NOT react with sodium metal?
- A
$\ce{CH3 - CH2 - OH}$
- ✓
$\ce{CH3 - O - CH3}$
- C
$\ce{CH3 - COOH}$
- D
$\ce{C6H5OH}$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $\ce{CH3 - O - CH3}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 681 Mark
What is IUPAC name of phenetole?
MCQ 691 Mark
Lucas reagent is a mixture of ____________.
- A
conc. $HNO _3$ and hydrated $ZnCl _2$
- B
conc. $HNO _3$ and anhydrous $ZnCl _2$
- C
conc. HCl and hydrated $ZnCl _2$
- ✓
conc. HCl and anhydrous $ZnCl _2$
AnswerCorrect option: D. conc. HCl and anhydrous $ZnCl _2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 701 Mark
Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction?
MCQ 711 Mark
Which of the following shows optical isomerism?
- A
${\left[ ZnCl _4\right]^{2-}}$
- B
${\left[ Co ( CN )_6\right]^{3-}}$
- ✓
${\left[ Cr \left( C _2 O _4\right)_3\right]^{3-}}$
- D
${\left[ Cu \left( NH _3\right)_4\right]^{2+}}$
AnswerCorrect option: C. ${\left[ Cr \left( C _2 O _4\right)_3\right]^{3-}}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 721 Mark
What type of isomerism is present between(I) $\left[ Cr \left( H _2 O \right)_6\right] Cl _3$ and (II) $\left[ Cr \left( H _2 O \right)_5 Cl ^2 Cl _2 \cdot H _2 O\right.$ ?
View full question & answer→MCQ 731 Mark
EAN of Zn in $\left[ Zn \left( NH _3\right)_4\right]^{2+}$ is____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 741 Mark
Which among the following complexes is NOT a heteroleptic complex?
- A
${\left[ Co ( en )_2 Cl _2\right]^{+}}$
- B
${\left[ Co ( en )_2 Cl _2\right] Cl }$
- ✓
${\left[ Co \left( NH _3\right)_6\right] Cl _3}$
- D
${\left[ Pt \left( NH _3\right)_4 Br _2\right] Br _2}$
AnswerCorrect option: C. ${\left[ Co \left( NH _3\right)_6\right] Cl _3}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 751 Mark
Which of the following is NOT an actinoid?
MCQ 761 Mark
____________ has the highest electronegativity next to fluorine amongst all the elements.
MCQ 771 Mark
Which of the following has highest value of ionization enthalpy?
MCQ 781 Mark
What is the oxidation state of bromine in the product? $\ce{Br2 + \underset{(excess)}{3F2} ->?}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 791 Mark
0.0210 M solution of $N _2 O _5$ is allowed to decompose at $43^{\circ} C$. How long will it take to reduce to 0.0150 M ? (Given $k =6.0 \times 10^{-4} sec ^{-1}$ )
View full question & answer→MCQ 801 Mark
What is the molecularity and order of the following reaction if rate law is, rate $= k \left[ O _3\right][ O ]$ respectively.$\ce{O_{3(g)} + O_{(g)} -> 2O_{2(g)}}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 811 Mark
Which metal from following has highest tendency to undergo oxidation?
MCQ 821 Mark
____________ is used as a primary reference electrode to determine the standard potentials of other electrodes.
MCQ 831 Mark
If $\Delta H ^{\circ}$ and $\Delta S ^{\circ}$ for the reaction $N _2 O _{4(g)} \longrightarrow 2 NO _{2(g)}$ is 57.24 kJ and $175.8 JK ^{-1} mol^{-1}$ respectively. What is the value of $\Delta G^{\circ}$ for this reaction at 298 K ?
View full question & answer→MCQ 841 Mark
Given the reaction,$\ce{CH2O_{(g)} + O2_{(g)} -> CO2_{(g)} + H2O_{(g)}}$ ΔH = −527 kJ
How much heat will be evolved in the formation of 60 g of $CO _2 ?$
View full question & answer→MCQ 851 Mark
Which is the CORRECT representation for the solubility product $\left( K _{ sp }\right)$ of $Bi _2 S_3$ ?
- ✓
${\left[ Bi ^{3+}\right]^2\left[S^{2-}\right]^3}$
- B
${\left[2 Bi ^{3+}\right]^2\left[3 S^{2-}\right]^3}$
- C
${\left[ Bi ^{3+}\right]^3\left[S^{2-}\right]^2}$
- D
${\left[ Bi ^{3+}\right]\left[ S ^{2-}\right]}$
AnswerCorrect option: A. ${\left[ Bi ^{3+}\right]^2\left[S^{2-}\right]^3}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 861 Mark
Which of the following when dissolved in water results in neutral solution?
- ✓
$KNO _3$
- B
$Na _2 CO _3$
- C
$NH _4 Cl$
- D
$CuCl _2$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $KNO _3$
View full question & answer→MCQ 871 Mark
Solution of 'A' containing 3.42 g of it in $100 cm^3$ of water is found to be isotonic with a $6.84 \%$ '("w"/"V" $V^{\prime \prime}$ ' solution of sucrose, what is the molar mass of ' A '? (At. wt: $C =12, H =1, O =16$ )
View full question & answer→MCQ 881 Mark
The molar mass of the solute using depression of freezing point may be calculated using the formula, ____________.
- A
`"M"_2 = ("K"_"b""W"_2 1000)/(Δ"T"_"b" "m")`
- B
`"M"_2 = (Δ"T"_"b" "W"_2 1000)/("K"_"b" "W"_1)`
- C
`"M"_2 = ("K"_"b""W"_1 1000)/(Δ"T"_"b" "W"_2)`
- ✓
`"M"_2 = ("K"_"b" "W"_2 1000)/(Δ"T"_"b" "W"_1)`
AnswerCorrect option: D. `"M"_2 = ("K"_"b" "W"_2 1000)/(Δ"T"_"b" "W"_1)`
View full question & answer→MCQ 891 Mark
Consider the following unit cell.
The number of particles (spheres) per unit cell is:
MCQ 901 Mark
How much part of an atom occupies each comer of bee unit cell?
MCQ 911 Mark
The molecular formula of an alkane with molecular weight 86 is ____________.
- ✓
$C _6 H _{14}$
- B
$C _7 H _{16}$
- C
$C _5 H _{12}$
- D
$C _6 H _{12}$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $C _6 H _{14}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 921 Mark
The bond line formula of the following compound is: $\ce{CH3CH(CH3)CH2C(CH3)2CH3}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 931 Mark
The slope and intercept for plot of $`log_10 "x"/"m"`$ against $\log _{10} P$ for Freundlich equation are ____________ and ____________ respectively.
AnswerCorrect option: C. $`1/"n"`, `log_10"k"`$
View full question & answer→MCQ 941 Mark
The force of attraction between any two nonpolar molecules is ____________.
- ✓
- B
- C
dipole-dipole interaction
- D
dipole-induced dipole interaction
View full question & answer→MCQ 951 Mark
The products of the following reaction are:$\ce{CH4_{(g)} + H2O_{(g)} ->[1270 K][Ni]}$
AnswerCorrect option: D. CO and $H _2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 961 Mark
When methane is burnt completely, oxidation state of carbon changes from ______.
MCQ 971 Mark
Consider the coordination compound, $K _2\left[ Cu ( CN )_4\right]$. A coordinate covalent bond exists between:
- A
$K ^{+} \text {and } CN ^{-}$
- ✓
$Cu ^{2+} \text { and } CN ^{-}$
- C
$K ^{+} \text {and }\left[ Cu ( CN )_4\right]^{2-}$
- D
$Cu ^{2+} \text { and } K ^{+}$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $Cu ^{2+} \text { and } CN ^{-}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 981 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT with respect to enthalpy?
- A
It is independent of the path followed for the change.
- B
- C
Its value depends upon the amount of substance in the system.
- ✓
It is an intensive property.
AnswerCorrect option: D. It is an intensive property.
View full question & answer→MCQ 991 Mark
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
- A
Tritium is a radioactive nuclide.
- B
The most abundant isotope of hydrogen is protium.
- C
All isotopes of hydrogen contain one proton and one electron but different number of neutrons in the nucleus.
- ✓
Isotopes of an element have the same atomic mass number but different atomic numbers.
AnswerCorrect option: D. Isotopes of an element have the same atomic mass number but different atomic numbers.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1001 Mark
What is the number of moles and total number of atoms respectively present in $5.6 cm^3$ of ammonia gas at STP?
- A
1.505 mol and $6.022 \times 10^{20}$ atoms
- B
$2.50 \times 10^{-3} mol$ and $1.5 \times 10^{20}$ atoms
- ✓
$2.50 \times 10^{-4} mol$ and $6.022 \times 10^{20}$ atoms
- D
2.05 mol and $1.50 \times 10^{20}$ atoms
AnswerCorrect option: C. $2.50 \times 10^{-4} mol$ and $6.022 \times 10^{20}$ atoms
View full question & answer→MCQ 1011 Mark
Identify the in situ method of conservation among the following.
MCQ 1021 Mark
Which among the following is/are the type( s) of extinction of species?
MCQ 1031 Mark
Species that possess a very high risk of extinction due to rapid population decline of about 50 - 70 % over three generations is designated as ______.
MCQ 1041 Mark
The graph of species richness and area for a number of taxa like angiospermic plants, freshwater fishes, and birds is found to be ______.
MCQ 1051 Mark
Which of the following hypothesis states: Rich species diversity leads to lesser variation in biomass production over a period of time.
- A
Productivity - Biomass Hypothesis
- ✓
Productivity - Stability Hypothesis
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Productivity - Stability Hypothesis
View full question & answer→MCQ 1061 Mark
After a fire in a forest, the pioneer stage during secondary succession is ______.
MCQ 1071 Mark
Where is secondary succession initiated?
- A
Where only one species of organism existed.
- B
Where no living organisms ever existed.
- C
- ✓
Area which has lost all the living organisms once existed.
AnswerCorrect option: D. Area which has lost all the living organisms once existed.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1081 Mark
Development of communities on ______ is termed as primary succession.
MCQ 1091 Mark
The growth of lichens on the rocks followed by mosses, herbs, shrubs and trees is an example of ______.
MCQ 1101 Mark
Identify the type of population shown in the given figures (a and b). 
MCQ 1111 Mark
What can you interpret from an age pyramid with a broad base?
- A
Low percentage of old individuals.
- ✓
High percentage of young individuals.
- C
Low percentage of young individuals.
- D
High percentage of old individuals.
AnswerCorrect option: B. High percentage of young individuals.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1121 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
- A
Realised mortality- The number of deaths when environmental pressures come into play.
- ✓
Realised natality- The number of births under ideal conditions
- C
Crude birth rate- Used to calculate population size
- D
Absolute mortality- The number of deaths under ideal conditions
AnswerCorrect option: B. Realised natality- The number of births under ideal conditions
View full question & answer→MCQ 1131 Mark
______ organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures.
MCQ 1141 Mark
What is the place where a particular organism lives called?
MCQ 1151 Mark
Identify the process by which competent host can take up chimeric DNA.
MCQ 1161 Mark
Which of the following technique is used for the separation of DNA fragments of different lengths?
MCQ 1171 Mark
______ is the soil bacterium that causes crown gall characterized by tumors in plants.
- A
- B
- ✓
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- D
AnswerCorrect option: C. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
View full question & answer→MCQ 1181 Mark
DNA polymerase enzyme used in PCR is isolated from ____________ bacteria.
MCQ 1191 Mark
From the following list of cloning vectors used in rDNA technology identify the vectors that are the most commonly used. Plasmids, bacteriophages (Ml3, lambda virus), cosmid, phagemid, BAC (bacterial artificial chromosome), YAC (yeast artificial chromosome), transposons, baculoviruses, and mammalian artificial chromosomes (MACs)
- A
Cosmids, transposons and phagemid
- ✓
Plasmids (pBR322, pUC, Ti plasmid) and bacteriophages (Ml3, lambda phage)
- C
Baculoviruses, BAC and YAC
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Plasmids (pBR322, pUC, Ti plasmid) and bacteriophages (Ml3, lambda phage)
View full question & answer→MCQ 1201 Mark
Which of the following is one of the basic elements considered in green revolution?
- A
Cultivation of single crop in the same farm land
- B
Maximum use of fertilizers
- C
Use of traditional varieties
- ✓
Optimum use of fertilizers
AnswerCorrect option: D. Optimum use of fertilizers
View full question & answer→MCQ 1211 Mark
Which of the following steps are involved in the anaerobic digestion of biogas production?
- A
Two steps - hydrolysis, and acidogenesis
- B
Two steps - solubilisation, and methanogenesis
- C
Three steps- solubilisation, hydrolysis, and methanogenesis
- ✓
Three steps - hydrolysis, acidogenesis, and methanogenesis
AnswerCorrect option: D. Three steps - hydrolysis, acidogenesis, and methanogenesis
View full question & answer→MCQ 1221 Mark
______ refers to the organic matter which settles down after physical treatment of sewage.
MCQ 1231 Mark
Mushrooms are rich source of ____________.
- ✓
Proteins, vitamins, minerals and amino acids
- B
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: A. Proteins, vitamins, minerals and amino acids
View full question & answer→MCQ 1241 Mark
Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct option. | | Column 'A' | | Column 'B' |
| i. | Callus | a. | Breeding crops for improving their nutritional value. |
| ii. | Morphogenesis | b. | DNA molecules carrying the desired gene. |
| iii. | Biofortification | c. | Unorganized mass of loosely arranged parenchymatous cells. |
| iv. | Vectors | d. | Development of different plant organs from callus. |
- ✓
(i - c); (ii - d); (iii - a); (iv - b)
- B
(i - b); (ii - a); (iii - d); (iv - c)
- C
(i - c); (ii - b); (iii - a); (iv - d)
- D
(i - c); (ii - a); (iii - b); (iv - d)
AnswerCorrect option: A. (i - c); (ii - d); (iii - a); (iv - b)
View full question & answer→MCQ 1251 Mark
The drug morphine is extracted from the ____________.
- A
inflorescence of Cannabis
- B
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1261 Mark
Which pathogen causes gonorrhoea?
- A
- ✓
- C
- D
Streptococcus gonorrhoeae
View full question & answer→MCQ 1271 Mark
Typhoid is caused due to ______.
MCQ 1281 Mark
In the given malarial life cycle, identify the labels 'X' and 'Y'.
- A
X - Gametocyte, Y - Hypnozoite
- B
X - Sporozoite, Y - Tropbozoite
- ✓
X - Merozoites, Y - Oocyst
- D
X - Trophozoite, Y - Schizont
AnswerCorrect option: C. X - Merozoites, Y - Oocyst
View full question & answer→MCQ 1291 Mark
What is the full form of ELISA?
- A
Enzyme Ligase Immunosorbent Assay
- ✓
Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay
- C
Enzyme Linked lmmunosolid Assay
- D
Esterase Linked Immunosorbent Assay
AnswerCorrect option: B. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay
View full question & answer→MCQ 1301 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE for individuals having 'A' blood group?
- ✓
They have 'A' antigen on the surface of their RBCs and 'b' antibodies in their plasma.
- B
They have both antigen 'A' and 'B' on the surface of their RBCs and no antibodies in their plasma.
- C
They lack 'A' and 'B' antigens on the surface of their RBCs and show presence of both 'a' and 'b' antibodies in their plasma.
- D
They have 'B' antigen on the sw-face of their RBCs and 'a' antibodies in their plasma.
AnswerCorrect option: A. They have 'A' antigen on the surface of their RBCs and 'b' antibodies in their plasma.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1311 Mark
The 'eye muscles' are controlled by which cranial nerves?
MCQ 1321 Mark
Identify the parts of the hind brain.
- A
Cerebellum and diencephalon.
- B
Diencephaloo and medulla oblongata.
- ✓
Cerebellum, medulla oblongata and pons varolii.
- D
Cerebrum and medulla oblongata
AnswerCorrect option: C. Cerebellum, medulla oblongata and pons varolii.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1331 Mark
In the given diagram of the human brain identify the labels (i - iii).
- A
i - cerebrum , ii - corpus callosum, iii - cerebellum
- B
i - cerebellum, ii - cerebral aqueduct, iii - cerebrum
- C
i - cerebrum, ii - cerebellum, iii - corpus striatum
- ✓
i - cerebellum, ii - corpus callosum, iii - thalamus
AnswerCorrect option: D. i - cerebellum, ii - corpus callosum, iii - thalamus
View full question & answer→MCQ 1341 Mark
Which part of the brain has control over the endocrine system?
MCQ 1351 Mark
Identify the location of the arbor vitae.
MCQ 1361 Mark
Which of the following statements is TRUE for Wernicke's area?
- A
It is a centre for expression of emotions
- B
It is the area for co-ordination between sensation and movements
- ✓
It is a centre for intelligence
- D
It is also known as motor speech area
AnswerCorrect option: C. It is a centre for intelligence
View full question & answer→MCQ 1371 Mark
Which of the following is/are indicated by P-wave of ECG?
i. Depolarization of atrial muscles.
ii. Activation of SA-node.
iii. Spread of excitation from AV node to SA node.
iv. Repolarization of atria and depolarization of ventricles.
MCQ 1381 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding pulse.
- A
Pulse is not felt in superficial arteries located in wrist and neck.
- B
Pulse is strongest at arteries away from the heart.
- ✓
Pulse is series of pressure waves that travel through the arteries due to ventricular systole.
- D
Pulse is weakest in arteries closer to the heart.
AnswerCorrect option: C. Pulse is series of pressure waves that travel through the arteries due to ventricular systole.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1391 Mark
Blood capillaries show the presence of ______
- A
endothelium and thin coat of muscle fibres and connective tissue.
- ✓
a single layer of squamous epithelium
- C
endothelium and the thin coat of connective tissue.
- D
endothelium and the thin coat of muscle fibres.
AnswerCorrect option: B. a single layer of squamous epithelium
View full question & answer→MCQ 1401 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement with respect to serous pericardium.
- ✓
It is formed of squamous epithelium and divisible into parietal and visceral layers.
- B
It is made up of four layers.
- C
- D
It is formed of pleural membrane.
AnswerCorrect option: A. It is formed of squamous epithelium and divisible into parietal and visceral layers.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1411 Mark
Organelle which is regarded as the powerhouse of the cell and in which oxidative reactions of the respiratory process takes place is ______
- A
- B
rough endoplasmic reticulum
- C
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1421 Mark
Circulation is carried out by ______ in higher animals.
MCQ 1431 Mark
Through which of the following reptiles, birds, and mammals respire as an adaptation for terrestrial life?
MCQ 1441 Mark
Compound which is most widely used as a source of ethylene is ____________.
MCQ 1451 Mark
Flowering in long day plants is a function performed by ______.
MCQ 1461 Mark
Production of seedless grapes can be done by ______.
- A
growing grape plant in mineral solution
- B
supplying radioactive compounds
- ✓
spraying auxin hormones on flowers
- D
propagating grape plants from cuttings
AnswerCorrect option: C. spraying auxin hormones on flowers
View full question & answer→MCQ 1471 Mark
Which among the following is the CORRECT statement regarding ethylene?
- A
Ethylene is a gaseous hormone.
- ✓
- C
Ethylene is effective in fruit ripening.
- D
Ethylene is unsaturated hydrocarbon gas.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1481 Mark
Water absorption takes place through ______
MCQ 1491 Mark
______ is available to the plants for absorption.
MCQ 1501 Mark
Which type of water is available to the plants?
MCQ 1511 Mark
Water absorption takes place through ______.
MCQ 1521 Mark
In soil which of the following type of water is available for absorption by plant roots?
MCQ 1531 Mark
Identify the fossil man whose remains were discovered in the Shivalik hills in India?
MCQ 1541 Mark
Natural selection of black winged moth (Biston carbonaria) over white winged moth (Biston betularia) occurred due to ____________.
MCQ 1551 Mark
What is a small interbreeding group of population called?
- A
- B
Hardy Weinberg population
- ✓
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1561 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE for genetic drift?
- A
It is the change in frequency of a gene that occurs merely by selection and chance.
- ✓
It is the change in frequency of a gene merely by chance in a small population.
- C
It is the change in frequency of a gene that occurs merely by selection.
- D
It is the change in frequency of a gene that does not influence in any extent.
AnswerCorrect option: B. It is the change in frequency of a gene merely by chance in a small population.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1571 Mark
The total genetic information encoded in sum total of genes in a Mendelian population is called ______.
MCQ 1581 Mark
Which of the following are the applications of DNA fingerprinting?
MCQ 1591 Mark
Identify the process described in the following paragraph. Repressible regulation of gene is seen when the end product of a biosyntbetic pathway like amino acid, is provided in the medium. At this time, internal biosynthesis of amino acid stops. It is negative control so the metabolite (amino acid) turns off a set of genes involved in producing that metabolite.
MCQ 1601 Mark
Identify the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA which codes for the sequence of amino acids 'Met-Leu- Val- Arg- Ala'.
- A
AUG - GAU - GAA - CGU - GCC
- B
AUG - CUA - GUG - UAU - UGU
- ✓
AUG - CUA - GUG - CGU - GCC
- D
AUG - GAU - GAA - UAU - UGU
AnswerCorrect option: C. AUG - CUA - GUG - CGU - GCC
View full question & answer→MCQ 1611 Mark
For which of the following reasons genetic code is universal?
- A
It is same for specific protein.
- B
It is same for only certain organisms.
- C
- ✓
It is same for all living organisms.
AnswerCorrect option: D. It is same for all living organisms.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1621 Mark
Which of the following is present at the sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule?
MCQ 1631 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option. i. Genetic disorders are broadly categorised as, Mendelian disorders and chromosomal disorders.
ii. Mendelian disorders are caused due to absence or excess of one or more chromosomes or their abnormal arrangement.
iii. Chromosomal disorders are mainly caused due to alteration or mutation in the gene.
- A
Statements i, ii and iii are incorrect.
- ✓
- C
Statements i and ii are incorrect.
- D
Statements i and iii are incorrect.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1641 Mark
Identify the progeny produced if a colour blind male marries a normal vision female.
- A
75% male carriers for color blindness and 25% colour blind females.
- ✓
All females carrier for colour blindness and all males with normal vision.
- C
25% male carriers for color blindness and 25% colour blind females.
- D
All colour blind males and daughters carrier for colour blindness.
AnswerCorrect option: B. All females carrier for colour blindness and all males with normal vision.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1651 Mark
In which of the following case colour blind daughter will be born?
- A
If none of the parents are colour blind.
- B
If only father is colour blind.
- ✓
If both parents are colour blind.
- D
If mother is colour blind and father is normal.
AnswerCorrect option: C. If both parents are colour blind.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1661 Mark
When a white eye Drosophila male $\left(X^r Y\right)$ is crossed to a red eye female $\left(X^R X^R\right)$, in the $F_2$ generation all the females are red eyed and $50 \%$ males are white eyed. In a criss-cross test, when males are white eyed. In a criss-cross test, when a white eyed female ( $X^r X^r$ ) is crossed to a red eye male ( $X^R Y$ ), the $F_1$ generation offspring had white eyed males while the female offspring bad red eyes. Instead of crossing of a white eyed female $\left\{X^r X^r\right\}$ to a red eyed male $\left(X^R Y\right)$, white eye female $\left(X^r X^r\right)$ to white eye male $\left(X^r Y\right)$ is crossed, the $F_1$ generation will have the following phenotypes and genotype.
- ✓
All females have white eye ( $\left.X^r X^r, X^r X^r\right)$ and all males have white eye ( $X^r Y, X^r Y$ )
- B
All female have white eye $\left(X^r X^r, X^r X^r\right)$ and $50 \%$ males have red eye $\left(X^R Y, X^r Y\right)$
- C
$50 \%$ females have white eye $\left(X^r X^r, X^R X^r\right)$ and all males have white eye $\left(X^r Y, X^r Y\right.$ )
- D
All females have white eye $\left(X^r X^r, X^r X^r\right)$ and all males have red eye $\left(X^r Y, X^r Y\right.$ )
AnswerCorrect option: A. All females have white eye ( $\left.X^r X^r, X^r X^r\right)$ and all males have white eye ( $X^r Y, X^r Y$ )
View full question & answer→MCQ 1671 Mark
Identify the term that represents the degree of repetition of the primary basic number of chromosomes in a cell.
MCQ 1681 Mark
The genotypes of a husband and wife are $\mid A_{\mid}{ }^B$ and $I_i$ respectively. How many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible among the blood types of their children?
- A
4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
- ✓
4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
- C
3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
- D
3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
AnswerCorrect option: B. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
View full question & answer→MCQ 1691 Mark
______ develops from endoderm.
- A
- B
- C
- ✓
Glands of stomach and intestine
AnswerCorrect option: D. Glands of stomach and intestine
View full question & answer→MCQ 1701 Mark
Fertilization of the ovum generally takes place in the ______.
MCQ 1711 Mark
Identify the enzyme released by the sperm which has lytic activity.
MCQ 1721 Mark
Which of the following are known as the nourishing cells present in the seminiferous tubules?
MCQ 1731 Mark
Which hormone is secreted by the developing secondary follicles?
MCQ 1741 Mark
Lack of which hormone results in menstrual flow?
MCQ 1751 Mark
From the following identify the non endospermic seeds.
MCQ 1761 Mark
Which of the following is not an adaptation shown by desert plants?
- ✓
- B
Thick cuticle on their leaf
- C
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1771 Mark
In ______, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented.
MCQ 1781 Mark
The place where exine is interrupted is known as ______.
MCQ 1791 Mark
Identify the CORRECT term for the following: The thick, highly resistant outer layer of pollen wall.
MCQ 1801 Mark
Which of the following methods of asexual reproduction are observed in lower organisms?
MCQ 1811 Mark
Sweat helps in the excretion of
MCQ 1821 Mark
The average adult without any kidney ailments will have glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of ______.
MCQ 1831 Mark
JGA responds to fluctuation in ____________.
- A
- ✓
- C
electrolyte concentration
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1841 Mark
ln the given $V.S$. of Human Kidney, identify the labels $\{(1, 2, 3, 4)\}$.
- A
$1$ Major calyx
$2$ Minor calyx
$3$ Ureter
$4$ Renal pelvis
- ✓
$1$ Renal pelvis
$2$ Ureter
$3$ Renal pyramid
$4$ Minor calyx
- C
$1$ Renal pyramid
$2$ Major calyx
$3$ Ureter
$4$ Minor calyx
- D
$1$ Renal pyramid
$2$ Ureter
$3$ Renal pelvis
$4$ Minor calyx
AnswerCorrect option: B. $1$ Renal pelvis
$2$ Ureter
$3$ Renal pyramid
$4$ Minor calyx
$1$ Renal pelvis
$2$ Ureter
$3$ Renal pyramid
$4$ Minor calyx
View full question & answer→MCQ 1851 Mark
Identify the labels (A-F) in the given diagram of excretory system in human beings. 
- A
A = Kidney, B = Abdominal aorta, C = Urethra, D Urinary bladder, E = Ureter, F = pyramids
- B
A Kidney, B Renal vein, C = Urethra, D = Urinary bladder, E = Ureter, F = Abdominal aorta
- ✓
A = Kidney, B = Aorta, C = Ureter, D = Urinary bladder, E = Urethra, F = Renal pelvis
- D
A = Kidney, B = Renal artery, C = Urethra, D = Urinary bladder, E = Renal pelvis, F =Ureter
AnswerCorrect option: C. A = Kidney, B = Aorta, C = Ureter, D = Urinary bladder, E = Urethra, F = Renal pelvis
View full question & answer→MCQ 1861 Mark
Which of the following digestive juices contains enzymes for digestion of both starch and proteins?
MCQ 1871 Mark
Identify the correct components of gastric juice of infants.
- A
Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
- ✓
Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
- C
Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
- D
Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
AnswerCorrect option: B. Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
View full question & answer→MCQ 1881 Mark
All are part of the small intestine, EXCEPT
MCQ 1891 Mark
All are functions of the liver, EXCEPT
MCQ 1901 Mark
______ is the common passage of air and food.
MCQ 1911 Mark
How many ATPs will be effectively produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl Co-A from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid?
MCQ 1921 Mark
Which of the following is the CORRECT statement with respect to Krebs cycle?
- A
Krebs cycle acts as a connecting link between glycolysis and alcoholic fermentation.
- ✓
Some intermediates of the TCA cycle are used in synthesizing important biomolecules like glutamate and aspartate.
- C
Some intermediates of TCA cycle are formed on inner mitochondrial matrix.
- D
Krebs cycle occurs on inner mitochondrial membrane.
AnswerCorrect option: B. Some intermediates of the TCA cycle are used in synthesizing important biomolecules like glutamate and aspartate.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1931 Mark
The following identifies the electron acceptor present in the respiratory chain.
AnswerCorrect option: A. Cytochrome $a_3$
View full question & answer→MCQ 1941 Mark
With which of the following haemoglobin combines to form carboxyhaemoglobin?
MCQ 1951 Mark
Identify the cell organelle that is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP.
MCQ 1961 Mark
All are symptoms of amoebic dysentery, EXCEPT ______.
- A
- ✓
- C
Stools with excess mucous
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1971 Mark
Which of the following essential elements act as enzyme activators?
MCQ 1981 Mark
Pentose sugar present in RNA is ______
MCQ 1991 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option.
$(i)$ In quaternary structure, the peptide chains are much looped, twisted, and folded back on themselves due to formation of hydrogen bonds.
$(ii)$ When a protein has more than two polypeptide subunits their arrangement in space is called secondary structure.
- A
Both the statements $(i)$ and $(ii)$ are correct.
- B
Statement $(i)$ is correct.
- C
Statement $(ii)$ is correct.
- ✓
Both the statements $(i)$ and $(ii)$ are incorrect.
AnswerCorrect option: D. Both the statements $(i)$ and $(ii)$ are incorrect.
Both the statements $(i)$ and $(ii)$ are incorrect.
View full question & answer→MCQ 2001 Mark
The reserve food material in animals is ____________.
