MCQ 11 Mark
The truth-table given below is for which gate?
| A | B | C |
| 0 | 0 | 1 |
| 0 | 1 | 1 |
| 1 | 0 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 | 0 |
View full question & answer→MCQ 21 Mark
A transistor when connected in common emitter mode has a ____________.
- A
high input resistance and a low output resistance
- B
high input resistance and a high output resistance
- ✓
very low input resistance and a low output resistance
- D
medium input resistance and high output resistance
AnswerCorrect option: C. very low input resistance and a low output resistance
View full question & answer→MCQ 31 Mark
The maximum efficiency of full-wave rectifier is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 41 Mark
What percentage of radioactive substance is left after five half-lives?
View full question & answer→MCQ 51 Mark
A radioactive substance has half life of 3 hours. 75 % of the substance would decay in ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 61 Mark
The relation between magnetic moment of revolving electron 'M' and principle quantum number 'n' is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 71 Mark
The time of revolution of an electron around a nucleus of charge Ze in $n ^{\text {th }}$ Bohr orbit is directly proportional to ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 81 Mark
A photon of wavelength $3315 \mathring A$ falls on a photocathode and an electron of energy $3 \times 10^{-19} J$ is ejected. The threshold wavelength of photon is [Planck's constant $( h )=6.63 \times 10^{-34} J . s$, velocity of light $( c )=3 \times 10^8 m / s$ ] ____________.
- A
$5000 \mathring A$
- ✓
$6630 \mathring A$
- C
$3315 \mathring A$
- D
$1130 \mathring A$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $6630 \mathring A$
View full question & answer→MCQ 91 Mark
In photoelectric effect, graph of saturation current versus frequency of light is plotted. The nature of the graph will be ____________.
- ✓
- B
- C
straight upto threshold frequency and decays exponentially after
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 101 Mark
At what frequency (approximate) will the inductive reactance of 4 H inductance be equal to the capacitive reactance of 4 µF capacitance?
View full question & answer→MCQ 111 Mark
With an increase in the frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive reactance ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 121 Mark
The readings of ammeter and voltmeter in the following circuit are respectively

View full question & answer→MCQ 131 Mark
A 60 `Omega` electric heater is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz mains supply. The peak value of electric current flowing in the circuit is approximately ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 141 Mark
The mutual inductance between two coils is 0.09 henry. If the current in the primary coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.006 s, the e.m.f. induced in the secondary coil at that instant is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 151 Mark
A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is ____________.

AnswerCorrect option: A. 2rBv and R is at higher potential
View full question & answer→MCQ 161 Mark
The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic materials is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 171 Mark
The electron in the hydrogen atom is moving with a speed of $1.5 \times 10^6 m / s$ in an orbit of radius $2 \mathring A$. Magnetic moment of the revolving electron is.............
AnswerCorrect option: B. $2.4 \times 10^{-23} Am ^2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 181 Mark
The magnetic flux near the axis and inside the air core solenoid of length 60 cm carrying current ' I ' is $1.57 \times 10^{-6} Wb$. Its magnetic moment will be ..............
(cross-sectional area is very small as compared to length of solenoid, $\mu_0=4 \pi \times 10^{-7} SI$ unit)
View full question & answer→MCQ 191 Mark
A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current I. It is held in the XZ plane in a magnetic field B `hat"i".` The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is: ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 201 Mark
A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 100 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength $0.4 Wb / m ^2$. The coil carries a current of 2.5 A . If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of $30^{\circ}$ with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be.............
View full question & answer→MCQ 211 Mark
A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω has a current sensitivity of 5 div/mA. The instrument has 50 divisions. It can be converted into a voltmeter reading up to 25 volts by connecting a resistance of ______
View full question & answer→MCQ 221 Mark
A voltmeter of range 3 V and resistance 200 `Omega` cannot be converted into an ammeter of rang ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 231 Mark
A student connected the circuit as shown in the figure to determine the internal resistance of a cell E1 by potentiometer (E > E1). He is unable to obtain the null point because ______.

- A
polarities of battery E are not connected properly.
- B
resistance 'R' should be connected in series with E1.
- C
plug key K shold be connected in parallel with R.
- ✓
polarities of cell E1 are not connected properly.
AnswerCorrect option: D. polarities of cell E1 are not connected properly.
View full question & answer→MCQ 241 Mark
The current in the arm CD of the circuit will be

- ✓
$i_2+i_3$
- B
$i_1+i_3$
- C
$i_1+i_2$
- D
$i_1-i_2+i_3$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $i_2+i_3$
View full question & answer→MCQ 251 Mark
Two condensers of capacities 'C' and '2C' are connected in parallel and then in senes with $3^{\text {rd }}$ condenser of capacity '3C'. The combination is charged to 'V' volt. The charge on the condenser of capacity 'C' is ______
View full question & answer→MCQ 261 Mark
Five identical capacitors, of capacitance 20 µF each, are connected to a battery of 150 V, in a combination as shown in the diagram. What is the total amount of charge stored?

- A
$10 \times 10^{-3} C$
- ✓
$3 \times 10^{-3} C$
- C
$12 \times 10^{-3} C$
- D
$15 \times 10^{-3} C$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $3 \times 10^{-3} C$
View full question & answer→MCQ 271 Mark
A plane wavefront of wavelength `lambda`. is incident on a slit of width a. The angular width of principal maximum is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 281 Mark
Light waves from two coherent sources arrive at two points on a screen with a path difference of zero and λ/2. The ratio of the intensities at the points is ______
View full question & answer→MCQ 291 Mark
If two waves represented by `"y"_1 = 3 "sin" omega "t"` and `"y"_2 = 5 "sin" (omega "t" + pi/3)` interfere at a point, then the amplitude of the resulting wave will be about ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 301 Mark
An organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. Its fourth overtone is 600 Hz. Find the type of the pipe.
- A
- B
sometimes open sometimes closed
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 311 Mark
A transverse wave of amplitude 0.05 m and frequency 250 Hz is travelling along a stretched string with a speed of 100 m/s. What would be the displacement of a particle at a distance 1.1 m origin after 0.02 second?
`[sin pi/2=1, cos pi/2=0]`
View full question & answer→MCQ 321 Mark
The total energy of the body executing S.H.M. is E. The kinetic energy of the body, when the displacement is half of the amplitude is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 331 Mark
The velocities of a particle performing linear S.H.M are 0.13 m/s and 0.12 m/s, when it is at 0.12 m and 0.13 m from the mean position respectively. If the body starts from mean position, the equation of motion is ____________.
- A
`"x" = sqrt313 "sin" sqrt313 "t"`
- B
`"x" = sqrt313 "cos" sqrt313 "t"`
- ✓
`"x" = "sin" sqrt313 "t"`
- D
AnswerCorrect option: C. `"x" = "sin" sqrt313 "t"`
View full question & answer→MCQ 341 Mark
$8 m^3$ of a gas is heated at the pressure $10^5 N / m ^2$ until its volume increases by $10 \%$. Then, the external work done by the gas is ____________.
- ✓
$8 \times 10^4 J$
- B
$4 \times 10^5 J$
- C
$10^6 J$
- D
$10^4 J$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $8 \times 10^4 J$
View full question & answer→MCQ 351 Mark
The sum of the absorptance, reflectance, and transmittance of a body is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 361 Mark
The average force applied on the walls of a closed container depends as '${ }^{\prime} T^{ X }$,, where 'T' is the temperature of an ideal gas. The value of 'x' is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 371 Mark
On the surface of the liquid in equilibrium, molecules of the liquid possess ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 381 Mark
A mercury drop of radius 'R' is divided into 27 droplets of same size. The radius 'r' of each droplet is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 391 Mark
A disc of mass 10 kg and radius 0.1 m/s rotating at 120 r.p.m. A retarding torque brings it to rest in 10s. If the same torque is due to force applied tangentially on the rim of the disc then magnitude of force is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 401 Mark
A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. The wheel is starting from rest and it rotates through an angle $\theta_1$, in first two seconds. In the next two seconds, it rotates through an angle $\theta_2$. The ratio $\theta_1 / \theta_2$ is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 411 Mark
In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output. The circuit represents ______.

View full question & answer→MCQ 421 Mark
A large metal plate of area $1.0 m^2$ is placed in electric field. The magnitude E of the electric field is 5.5 N/C. What is the magnitude of charge on the plate?
View full question & answer→MCQ 431 Mark
If astronomical telescope of length 1.53 m has magnifying power of magnitude 50, the values of $f_0$ and $f_e$ are ____________.
- A
$f _0=1.55 m, f _{ e }=-0.02 m$
- B
$f _{ o }=0.03 m, f _{ e }=1.5 m$
- ✓
$f _{ o }=1.5 m, f _{ e }=0.03 m$
- D
$f _{ o }=1.5 m, f _{ e }=-0.03 m$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $f _{ o }=1.5 m, f _{ e }=0.03 m$
View full question & answer→MCQ 441 Mark
The equation of a plane progressive wave is y = 0.09sin8 `pi` `["t" - "x"/20]`.When it is reflected at a rigid support, its amplitude becomes `2/3`rd of its 3 previous value. The equation of the reflected wave is ______.
- ✓
y = - 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" + "x"/20]`
- B
y = 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" + "x"/20]`
- C
y = 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" - "x"/20]`
- D
y = - 0.09 sin 8 `pi` `["t" - "x"/20]`
AnswerCorrect option: A. y = - 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" + "x"/20]`
View full question & answer→MCQ 451 Mark
The wave of the wavelength 30 cm and frequency 100 Hz will be ______.
- ✓
y = A sin 2`pi` (100t - x/30)
- B
y = A sin 2`pi` (0.01 t + 30x)
- C
y =A sin 2`pi` (t/0.01 - 30x)
- D
y = A sin2`pi` (0.1 t - 30x)
AnswerCorrect option: A. y = A sin 2`pi` (100t - x/30)
View full question & answer→MCQ 461 Mark
Two moles of an ideal diatomic gas occupies a volume V at 27° C. The gas expands adiabatically to a volume 2V. Calculate the final temperature of the gas is nearly ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 471 Mark
A satellite of mass 'm', revolving round the earth of radius 'r' has kinetic energy (E). Its angular momentum is ______.
- A
$`(mEr^2)^(1/2)`$
- ✓
$`(2mEr^2)^(1/2)`$
- C
$\left( mEr ^2\right)$
- D
$`(2mEr^2)`$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $`(2mEr^2)^(1/2)`$
View full question & answer→MCQ 481 Mark
Reason of weightlessness in a satellite is ____________.
- A
- ✓
Zero reaction force by satellite surface
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Zero reaction force by satellite surface
View full question & answer→MCQ 491 Mark
The moment of the couple is independent of ______
- A
angle made by the line of action of force.
- B
the magnitude of the force.
- C
the magnitude of the distance between the line of action of force and perpendicular distance.
- ✓
the point about which the moment is found.
AnswerCorrect option: D. the point about which the moment is found.
View full question & answer→MCQ 501 Mark
The ratio of the angular speed of minute hand and hour hand of a watch is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 511 Mark
Which among the following polymers is obtained first by formation of salt by neutralization and then by step growth polymerization?
View full question & answer→MCQ 521 Mark
Which among the following polymers can NOT be remoulded?
View full question & answer→MCQ 531 Mark
Which among the following polymers is a copolymer?
View full question & answer→MCQ 541 Mark
Identify the side chain –R present in amino acid lysine.
AnswerCorrect option: A. $-\left( CH _2\right)_4- NH _2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 551 Mark
The side chain R in cysteine is ____________.
- A
$- CH _2 Ph$
- B
$- CH _2 OH$
- ✓
$- CH _2 SH$
- D
$- CH _2 NH _2$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $- CH _2 SH$
View full question & answer→MCQ 561 Mark
On hydrolysis sucrose gives ____________.
- A
- B
- ✓
equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose
- D
AnswerCorrect option: C. equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose
View full question & answer→MCQ 571 Mark
Aniline on reaction with Bromine water at room temperature gives ____________.
- A
- ✓
2, 4, 6 - Tribromoaniline
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. 2, 4, 6 - Tribromoaniline
View full question & answer→MCQ 581 Mark
Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with 'X' gives benzene. Identify X.
- A
- ✓
$C _2 H _5 OH$
- C
$H _2 O$
- D
$CHCl _3$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $C _2 H _5 OH$
View full question & answer→MCQ 591 Mark
Which one of the following compounds when heated with KOH and $CHCl_3$ gives carbylamine test?
AnswerCorrect option: D. $RNH _2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 601 Mark
Which of the following represents the structure of isopropyl methyl ketone?
- A
$\begin{array}{cc}
\ce{O}\\
||\\
\ce{CH3 - CH2 - C - CH2 - CH3}
\end{array}$
- B
$\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{..............}\ce{O}\\
\phantom{..............}||\\
\ce{CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - C - CH3}
\end{array}$
- ✓
$\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{.......}\ce{O}\\
\phantom{.......}||\\
\ce{CH3 - CH - C - CH3}\\
|\phantom{.......}\\
\ce{CH3}\phantom{....}
\end{array}$
- D
$\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{.......................}\ce{O}\\
\phantom{.......................}||\\
\ce{CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - C - H}
\end{array}$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{.......}\ce{O}\\
\phantom{.......}||\\
\ce{CH3 - CH - C - CH3}\\
|\phantom{.......}\\
\ce{CH3}\phantom{....}
\end{array}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 611 Mark
Which of the following is obtained on alkaline hydrolysis of 1,1-dichlorocyclohexane?
View full question & answer→MCQ 621 Mark
The formation of aldehyde from an alkyl cyanide using $SnCl _2 /$ conc. HCl is known as ____________.
- A
Gattermann Koch formylation
- ✓
- C
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 631 Mark
When ethyl methyl ether is treated with cold concentrated HI, it gives two products. Products formed are ____________.
AnswerCorrect option: D. $CH _3 I + C _2 H _5 OH$
View full question & answer→MCQ 641 Mark
1-Methoxypropane is a metamer of ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 651 Mark
Methoxy ethane on reaction with hot concentrated HI gives ____________.
- A
- ✓
iodomethane and iodoethane
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. iodomethane and iodoethane
View full question & answer→MCQ 661 Mark
The most suitable reagent(s) required to prepare 1-iodobutane from but-1-ene is/are ____________.
AnswerCorrect option: D. HBr in the presence of $\left( C _6 H _5 CO \right)_2 O _2$ and Nal in dry acetone
View full question & answer→MCQ 671 Mark
Identify the name of reaction in which alkyl fluorides are prepared by heating alkyl bromide with metallic fluorides.
View full question & answer→MCQ 681 Mark
How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in neopentyl chloride?
View full question & answer→MCQ 691 Mark
Identify the increasing order of effective magnetic moment of the following elements in their +2 oxidation state.
[Fe (Z = 26), Co (Z = 27), Ni (Z = 28), Cu (Z = 29)]
View full question & answer→MCQ 701 Mark
Chlorophyll and haemoglobin are complexes of ____________ respectively.
View full question & answer→MCQ 711 Mark
Consider the two complexes given below: $\ce{\underset{(I)}{[Co(NH3)5SO4]Br}}$ and $\ce{\underset{(II)}{[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4}}$
I and II are ____________ isomers.
View full question & answer→MCQ 721 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
- A
In lanthanoids, the d-orbitals are filled gradually while in actinoids, f-orbitals are filled gradually.
- B
Lanthanoids form complexes easily as compared to actinoids.
- ✓
Lanthanoids do not form oxocations, but actinoids form oxocations.
- D
Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids.
AnswerCorrect option: C. Lanthanoids do not form oxocations, but actinoids form oxocations.
View full question & answer→MCQ 731 Mark
The transition metal(s) present in limonite is(are) ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 741 Mark
Spin-only magnetic moment of $mn ^{2+}$ ion is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 751 Mark
Select the CORRECT match.
- A
Atomic radius: O > S > Se
Ionisation enthalpy: O < S < Se
- ✓
Atomic radius: O < S < Se
Ionisation enthalpy: O > S > Se
- C
Atomic radius: O > S > Se
Ionisation enthalpy: O > S > Se
- D
Atomic radius: O < S < Se
Ionisation enthalpy: O < S < Se
AnswerCorrect option: B. Atomic radius: O < S < Se
Ionisation enthalpy: O > S > Se
View full question & answer→MCQ 761 Mark
Which among the following is the most reactive?
View full question & answer→MCQ 771 Mark
The number of moles of chlorine required to oxidise 2 mol of iodine to iodate in presence of water is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 781 Mark
The sulfuric acid obtained by contact process is ____________ % pure.
View full question & answer→MCQ 791 Mark
The time required to decompose $SO _2 Cl _2$ to half of it's initial amount is 60 minutes. Calculate rate constant for this first order reaction.
- A
$1.551 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
- ✓
$1.155 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
- C
$4.158 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
- D
$2.651 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $1.155 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 801 Mark
In the reaction $2 SO _{2_{( g )}} O _{2_{( g )}} \longrightarrow 2 SO _{3_{( g )}}$ the rate of disappearance of $SO _2$ is $1.28 \times 10^{-5} M / s$. What is the rate of appearance of $SO _3$ ?
- A
$2.56 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
- ✓
$1.25 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
- C
$0.32 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
- D
$0.64 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $1.25 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
View full question & answer→MCQ 811 Mark
The NICAD cell provides a potential of __________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 821 Mark
Nernst equation for the following cell reaction at 298 K is:$\ce{Mg_{(s)} | Mg^{2+}_{( aq)} || Ag^+_{( aq)} | Ag_{(s)}}$
- A
$E _{\text {cell }}= `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/2 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+])`$
- B
$E _{\text {cell }}= `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
- ✓
$E _{\text {cell }} = `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/2 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
- D
$E _{\text {cell }}= `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/3 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $E _{\text {cell }} = `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/2 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
View full question & answer→MCQ 831 Mark
A system is changed from an initial state to a final state by a manner such that ∆H = Q. If the change from initial state to final state was made by a different path, then ____________.
- A
both ∆H and Q will be different from first path
- ✓
∆H will be the same but not Q, of the first path
- C
Q will be the same but not ∆H, of the first path
- D
∆H and Q will be the same as the first path
AnswerCorrect option: B. ∆H will be the same but not Q, of the first path
View full question & answer→MCQ 841 Mark
The enthalpy change for two reactions are given by the equations$\ce{2Cr_{(s)} + 1.5 O2_{(g)} -> Cr2O3_{(s)}}$;
$\Delta H _1=-1130 kJ \ldots . \ldots . . . . .( i )$
$\ce{C_{(s)} + 0.5 O2_{(g)} -> CO_{(g)}}$;
$\Delta H _2=-110 kJ \ldots . \ldots . . . \text { (ii) }$
What is the enthalpy change, in kJ, for the following reaction?
$\ce{3C_{(s)} + Cr2O3_{(s)} -> 2Cr_{(s)} + 3CO_{(g)}}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 851 Mark
Which of the following is CORRECT for an aqueous solution of $NH _4 CN ?$
$\left[ K _{ a }\right.$ of $HCN =4.0 \times 10^{-10}, K_{ b }$ for $\left.NH _4 OH =1.8 \times 10^{-5}\right]$
View full question & answer→MCQ 861 Mark
The degree of ionization of 0.10 M solution of a weak monobasic acid is 4%. Find the value of $K_a$.
- A
$1.6 \times 10^{-5}$
- B
$1.6 \times 10^{-3}$
- ✓
$1.6 \times 10^{-4}$
- D
$1.6 \times 10^{-2}$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $1.6 \times 10^{-4}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 871 Mark
The unit of Henry's law constant is ____________.
- A
$L mol ^{-1} \text { bar }^{-1}$
- B
$mol L ^{-1} \text { bar }$
- ✓
$mol L ^{-1} \text { bar }^{-1}$
- D
$mol^{-1} L^{-1} \text { bar }$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $mol L ^{-1} \text { bar }^{-1}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 881 Mark
What type of solution is obtained when benzoic acid is added in Benzene?
View full question & answer→MCQ 891 Mark
Copper crystallises with fee unit cell. If the radius of copper atom is 127.8 pm, calculate the density of copper? (At. mass: Cu $\left.=63.55 g mol ^{-1}\right)$
- A
$4.4 g cm ^{-3}$
- B
$9.5 g cm ^{-3}$
- ✓
$8.9 g cm ^{-3}$
- D
$1.89 g cm ^{-3}$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $8.9 g cm ^{-3}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 901 Mark
The total volume occupied by particles m simple cubic unit cell is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 911 Mark
Optical isomerism is exhibited by ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 921 Mark
lUP AC name of $\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{}\ce{C2H5}\phantom{.}\ce{Cl}\phantom{....}\ce{CH3}\phantom{......}\\
\phantom{}|\phantom{.....}|\phantom{......}|\phantom{........}\\
\ce{H3C - CH2 - CH - CH - CH - CH2 - CH2 - CH3}
\end{array}$
- A
4-Chloro-3-ethyl-2-methylheptane
- B
4-Chloro-5-methyl-3-ethyloctane
- ✓
4-Chloro-3-ethyl-5-methyloctane
- D
5-Chloro-6-ethyl-4-methyloctane
AnswerCorrect option: C. 4-Chloro-3-ethyl-5-methyloctane
View full question & answer→MCQ 931 Mark
The order of coagulating power of following ions in the coagulation of a positive sol is: i. $\ce{PO^{3-}_4}$
ii. $\ce{SO^{2-}_4}$
iii. $\ce{[Fe(CN)6]^{4-}}$
iv. $\ce{NO^-_3}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 941 Mark
171 g of sucrose on hydrolysis gives ____________ mole(s) of glucose.
(Atomic wt: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
View full question & answer→MCQ 951 Mark
At what temperature the volume of a gas becomes absolutely zero?
View full question & answer→MCQ 961 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT for alkali metals?
- A
Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Ionic radii)
- ✓
Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Ionization enthalpy)
- C
Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Atomic radii)
- D
Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs (Melting point)
AnswerCorrect option: B. Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Ionization enthalpy)
View full question & answer→MCQ 971 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT for the following reaction?$\ce{2Zn_{(s)} + O2_{(g)} -> 2ZnO_{(s)}}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 981 Mark
The below given molecular geometry corresponds to which of the following molecule?

- A
$SiCl _4$
- B
$SF _4$
- C
$CH _4$
- ✓
$XeF _4$
AnswerCorrect option: D. $XeF _4$
View full question & answer→MCQ 991 Mark
The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is -3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1001 Mark
The volume in $dm ^3$ occupied by 15.0 g of ethane at STP is____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1011 Mark
'The Evil Quartet' is a concept which describes the ______.
- A
reasons for conservation of biodiversity.
- B
impact of species extinction on man.
- C
impact of biodiversity loss.
- ✓
causes of the loss of biodiversity.
AnswerCorrect option: D. causes of the loss of biodiversity.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1021 Mark
Identify the plant species which is present in most number.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1031 Mark
Maximum species richness is observed in the ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1041 Mark
Which of the following is included in species diversity?
- A
- B
- ✓
Both Species evenness and Species richness
- D
AnswerCorrect option: C. Both Species evenness and Species richness
View full question & answer→MCQ 1051 Mark
Which stage precedes the forest stage during succession in aquatic environments?
- A
Submerged free floating plant
- ✓
- C
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1061 Mark
______ is the gradual and predictable change in the species composition of a given area.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1071 Mark
What is the entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area called?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1081 Mark
Identify the biotic component.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1091 Mark
The correct description for the interspecific interaction shown in the given figure is ______

- A
sea anemone and clownfish is an example of mutualism.
- ✓
clownfish gets protection from predators while anemone is neither benefited nor harmed.
- C
both sea anemones and clownfish are benefited from this interaction.
- D
clownfish is benefited as it derives nutrition from tentacles of sea anemones causing harm to it.
AnswerCorrect option: B. clownfish gets protection from predators while anemone is neither benefited nor harmed.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1101 Mark
Using '-' to depict inhibition and '+' to depict benefit, mutualism between two species can be represented as ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1111 Mark
Calculate the birth rate if a population of 150 Paramoecium present in a pool increases to 450 after an hour.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1121 Mark
Which phase of the Logistic growth curve shows that the population density has reached the canying capacity in a habitat with limited resources?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1131 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement I: Some snails and fish undergo hibernation to avoid summer heat.
Statement II: Polar bears undergo hibernation in winters as they are unable to migrate
- A
Statement I is correct and ll is incorrect.
- ✓
Statement II is correct and I is incorrect.
- C
Both the statements are incorrect.
- D
Both the statements are correct.
AnswerCorrect option: B. Statement II is correct and I is incorrect.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1141 Mark
Biopharmaceuticals are proteins, hormones, antibodies, vaccines, or enzymes isolated from ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1151 Mark
Which of the following is/are the CORRECT step/s involved in construction of a recombinant DNA?
- A
Cleaving and re-joining DNA segments with 'endonuclease' alone.
- B
Cleaving and re-joining DNA segments with 'ligase' alone.
- ✓
Cleaving DNA segments with 'endonuclease' and re-joining them with 'ligase'.
- D
Cleaving DNA segments with 'ligase' and re-joining them with endonuclease.
AnswerCorrect option: C. Cleaving DNA segments with 'endonuclease' and re-joining them with 'ligase'.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1161 Mark
Which of the following is NOT involved in genetic engineering technique?
i. Combining genes from two organisms
ii. Gene cloning
iii. Transfer of lipid molecules
iv. Transfer of genes to new organisms
v. Repairing or replacing the defective genes by healthy genes
vi. Artificial synthesis of new gene
View full question & answer→MCQ 1171 Mark
From the following identify the methods of electrophoresis.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1181 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE regarding EcoR I?
- A
It is the abbreviation for bacterium Escherichia coli.
- B
It used to join two DNA fragments.
- ✓
It is a restriction enzyme.
- D
AnswerCorrect option: C. It is a restriction enzyme.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1191 Mark
What happens during the course of sewage decomposition?
- A
Initially, only methanogenic organisms predominate
- B
Initially only aerobic organisms predominate
- ✓
Initially aerobic and facultatively anaerobic organisms predominate
- D
Initially aerobic and obligate anaerobic organisms
AnswerCorrect option: C. Initially aerobic and facultatively anaerobic organisms predominate
View full question & answer→MCQ 1201 Mark
Due to which of the following reason/s sewage water cannot be discharged directly into river?
- A
It may destroy the flora and fam1a of river.
- B
It contains pathogenic microbes.
- C
It contains high level of organic matter.
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1211 Mark
Which of the following is/are the microbial source(s) for the enzyme pectinase?
- A
- ✓
Both Sclerotiana libertine and Aspergillus niger
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Both Sclerotiana libertine and Aspergillus niger
View full question & answer→MCQ 1221 Mark
Study the following statements and select the correct option.
$(i)$ Curd is prepared by inoculating milk with Lactobacillus acidophilus.
$(ii)$ Yogurt is produced by curdling milk with the help of Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus.
$(iii)$ Roquefort cheese is ripened by Lactobacillus acidophilus.
$(iv)$ Penicillium Roquefort is commonly called Brewer's yeast.
- A
$\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
- B
$\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are correct.
- C
$\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
- ✓
$\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
AnswerCorrect option: D. $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
$\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1231 Mark
Identify labels P, Q, R in the given figure of root showing different regions.

- A
P - Maturation zone, Q - Meristematic zone, R - Root cap
- B
P - Zone of elongation, Q - Meristematic zone, R - Maturation zone
- C
P - Maturation zone, Q - Root hair zone, R - Root cap
- ✓
P - Root hair zone, Q - Zone of elongation, R - Meristematic zone
AnswerCorrect option: D. P - Root hair zone, Q - Zone of elongation, R - Meristematic zone
View full question & answer→MCQ 1241 Mark
Which of the following set of medications is generally prescribed for malaria?
- ✓
Artesunate, sulfadoxine, pyrimethamine
- B
Artesunate, diethylcarbamazine, levamisole
- C
Penicillin, ampicillin and chloramphenicol
- D
Piperazine, mebendazole, pyrantel
AnswerCorrect option: A. Artesunate, sulfadoxine, pyrimethamine
View full question & answer→MCQ 1251 Mark
Which antigen would be present on the RBC surface of a person with A blood?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1261 Mark
Identify the factors involved in innate immunity and choose the correct option. i. Antibodies
ii. Skin
iii. Tears
iv. Neutrophils
v. T-lymphocytes
vi. Macrophages
vii. lgG
viii. Saliva
- A
- B
- ✓
- D
ii, iii, iv, v, vii, viii
View full question & answer→MCQ 1271 Mark
Due to which property of acquired immune system does a second encounter of the same pathogen brings about a stronger and quicker immune response?
- A
- ✓
- C
Discrimination between self and non self
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1281 Mark
Toxins released by bacteria like tetanus toxin undergo______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1291 Mark
Which cells are play a major role in non-specific defence against viral infections and tumors?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1301 Mark
Identify the correct function of the hormone ACTH.
- A
It stimulates thyroid gland
- B
it suppresses the activity of adrenal cortex.
- ✓
It stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce hormones.
- D
It stimulates pituitary gland
AnswerCorrect option: C. It stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce hormones.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1311 Mark
Which hormone is secreted in response to increasing blood calcium levels?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1321 Mark
Which of the following statements is TRUE for Cushing's disease?
AnswerCorrect option: A. It is caused due to hyper secretion of glucocorticoids.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1331 Mark
Which diseases is caused by the hypersecretion of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1341 Mark
______ is also known as the milk ejecting hormone.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1351 Mark
What is the outcome of hypersecretion of GH in childhood?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1361 Mark
Which of the following blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1371 Mark
Identify the CORRECT route through which impulse travels in the heart.
- ✓
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles
- B
AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His → Heart muscles
- C
SA node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His → AV node → Heart muscles
- D
AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles
AnswerCorrect option: A. SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles
View full question & answer→MCQ 1381 Mark
______ externally separates ventricles from each other.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1391 Mark
By which of the following mitral valve and tricuspid valve are attached to the papillary muscles?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1401 Mark
______ is a loose-fitting membrane that encloses the heart and consists of a superficial fibrous layer and a deep serous layer.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1411 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT match
- ✓
Monocytes - Secrete heparin
- B
Basophils - Secrete histamine and serotonin
- C
Eosinophils -Allergic response
- D
Neutrophils - Phagocytic and eat foreign organisms
AnswerCorrect option: A. Monocytes - Secrete heparin
View full question & answer→MCQ 1421 Mark
Which of the following health condition refers to the type of blood cancer in which uncontrolled increase in number of WBCs occurs?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1431 Mark
By which of the following emphysema is characterized?
- A
- B
Constriction of bronchioles
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1441 Mark
Which part(s) of plant is/are responsible for synthesis of gibberellins?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1451 Mark
Which of the following is the physiological role of auxins?
- ✓
Application of auxin to cuttings results in formation of adventitious roots.
- B
Auxins can break seed dormancy.
- C
Auxins stimulate growth of lateral buds.
- D
Auxins are more effective than gibberellins for inducing parthenocarpy.
AnswerCorrect option: A. Application of auxin to cuttings results in formation of adventitious roots.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1461 Mark
Coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly cut coleoptile stumps.
What is the significance of the above experiment performed by Dr. F. Went?
- A
It demonstrated polar movement of auxins.
- B
It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin.
- C
It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances.
- ✓
It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin.
AnswerCorrect option: D. It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1471 Mark
Which of the following is a NOT a naturally occurring phytohormone?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1481 Mark
Plants absorb water from the ______.
- A
- B
all four regions of a root
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1491 Mark
Which of the following term correctly describes the microenvironment surrounding the root from which plants absorb water?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1501 Mark
______ refers to the water that percolates deep in the soil due to the gravity.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1511 Mark
Epiphytic plants like orchids absorb water vapours from air with the help of epiphytic roots having special tissue called ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1521 Mark
The cell wall is freely permeable, but the plasma membrane is ______.
- A
- B
sometimes freely permeable
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1531 Mark
Identify the heavily built, short prehistoric man having cranial capacity of about 1400 cc who is known to bury the dead.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1541 Mark
Homo erectus probably existed during ____________.
- A
Early Pliocene epoch 12 mya
- ✓
Middle Pleistocene epoch 1.5 mya
- C
- D
Late Pliocene epoch 4 mya
AnswerCorrect option: B. Middle Pleistocene epoch 1.5 mya
View full question & answer→MCQ 1551 Mark
All are features of Homo habilis, EXCEPT ______
- A
He could make and use stone tools.
- ✓
His cranial capacity was about 1400 cc.
- C
He had dentition more like a modern man.
- D
Dentition like modern man
AnswerCorrect option: B. His cranial capacity was about 1400 cc.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1561 Mark
The movement of genes into or out of a population is known as ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1571 Mark
Which is TRUE for industrial melanism?
- A
It is an evidence of survival of fittest
- ✓
It is an evidence in favour of Natural Selection
- C
It is an effect of mutation
- D
It is the effect of industrial pollution
AnswerCorrect option: B. It is an evidence in favour of Natural Selection
View full question & answer→MCQ 1581 Mark
Using a DNA template, synthesis of a new strand is carried out by which of the following enzyme?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1591 Mark
Protein synthesis and cell division is accelerated by the hormone ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1601 Mark
Which of tbe following is generally used for creating density gradient during centrifugation?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1611 Mark
______ heavy isotope was used by Meselson and Stahl during their experiment.
- A
${ }^{14} C$
- B
${ }^{18} o$
- ✓
${ }^{15} N$
- D
${ }^{32} p$
AnswerCorrect option: C. ${ }^{15} N$
View full question & answer→MCQ 1621 Mark
The additional set of proteins required for packaging of chromatin at higher level are called ______.
- A
- ✓
Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins
View full question & answer→MCQ 1631 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
- A
The synthesis of alpha chains are controlled by two closely linked genes (HBAl and HBA2) on chromosome 16.
- B
Synthesis of beta chain is controlled by a single gene (HBB) on chromosome 11.
- ✓
Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing few globin molecules, while thalassemia is a qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functional globin.
- D
Thalassemia is caused due to deletion or mutation of a gene which codes for the alpha (a) and beta (p) globin chains that result in the abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin.
AnswerCorrect option: C. Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing few globin molecules, while thalassemia is a qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functional globin.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1641 Mark
Diploid larvae which get royal jelly as food develops into ____________ and other develops into workers (sterile females).
- A
queen i.e. infertile female
- B
- ✓
queen i.e. fertile female
- D
both queen i.e. infertile female and queen i.e. fertile female.
AnswerCorrect option: C. queen i.e. fertile female
View full question & answer→MCQ 1651 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option. i. If sperm containing Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum, then diploid zygote is formed that grows into a male child.
ii. If sperm containing X chromosome fertilizes ovum, then diploid zygote is formed, that grows into a female child.
- ✓
Both the statements are correct.
- B
- C
Statement ii is incorrect.
- D
Both the statements are incorrect.
AnswerCorrect option: A. Both the statements are correct.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1661 Mark
What would be the progeny obtained if a haemophilic male marries a female with normal blood clotting?
- A
25% carrier male and 25% haemophilic females.
- B
All, haemophilic males and all daughters carrier for haemophilia.
- ✓
All females carrier for haemophilia and all males with normal blood clotting.
- D
75% carrier male and 25% baemophilic females.
AnswerCorrect option: C. All females carrier for haemophilia and all males with normal blood clotting.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1671 Mark
Inheritance of hypertrichosis occurs directly from ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1681 Mark
Analyze the following statements and select the correct option.
$(i)$ Due to incomplete linkage, the parental traits are inherited in offsprings.
$(ii)$ Due to incomplete linkage, new traits occur in offsprings.
$(iii) \ X$ chromosome of Drosophila males show complete linkage.
$(iv)$ In Zea mays $-$ colour and shape of grain show complete linkage
- ✓
Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect
- B
Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are correct.
- C
Statements $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect.
- D
Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
AnswerCorrect option: A. Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect
Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect
View full question & answer→MCQ 1691 Mark
- A
Anti immune deficiency syndrome
- ✓
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
- C
Auto immune deficiency syndrome
- D
Acquired immune disease system
AnswerCorrect option: B. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
View full question & answer→MCQ 1701 Mark
What is the function of macrophages in immune defense?
- A
- B
Suppressing immune attack on own cells
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1711 Mark
From which germinal layer are eyes derived?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1721 Mark
First meiotic division is observed in ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1731 Mark
Identify the proper order of spermatogenesis and choose the correct option.
- A
Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
- B
Spermatogonia, Spennatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
- C
Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
- ✓
Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
AnswerCorrect option: D. Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
View full question & answer→MCQ 1741 Mark
Which of the following correctly describes the rete testis?
- ✓
It is formed when seminiferous tubules unite posteriorly.
- B
It is a network of tubules formed by union of vas deferens and seminal vesicle.
- C
They are accessory sex glands.
- D
They are tubules from which vasa deferentia arise.
AnswerCorrect option: A. It is formed when seminiferous tubules unite posteriorly.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1751 Mark
Identify the term that correctly describes the transfer of pollen grains through wind.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1761 Mark
______ are abiotic agents of pollination.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1771 Mark
Which of the following is important for self-pollination?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1781 Mark
During which of the following steps does extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occur?
- A
Simultaneously with first cleavage
- B
- ✓
After entry of sperm but before fertilization
- D
Before entry of sperm into ovum
AnswerCorrect option: C. After entry of sperm but before fertilization
View full question & answer→MCQ 1791 Mark
Identify the function/s of integuments.
- ✓
- B
After fertilization converted into seed coats
- C
Protection to nucellus and embryo sac
- D
Providing nutrition to the embryo sac
View full question & answer→MCQ 1801 Mark
In which of the following manner the arrangement of megaspores in a tetrad is observed in angiosperms?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1811 Mark
If a person is sweating and does not drink enough water, the concentration of urine is likely to be ____________ mOsm/L.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1821 Mark
Glucose is reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate mainly in the ____________.
- ✓
proximal convoluted tubule
- B
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: A. proximal convoluted tubule
View full question & answer→MCQ 1831 Mark
The capillaries of the glomerulus reunite to form _______ which leaves the Bowman's capsule.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1841 Mark
In order to carry out excretion, the liver of birds synthesize ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1851 Mark
Osmoregulation maintains the osmolarity of blood at about ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1861 Mark
Match the enzymes of Column-l with the functions of Column-II. Choose the correct option. | | Column-l | | Column-II |
| i. | Enterokinase | a. | Absent in adults |
| ii. | Rennin | b. | Digests carbohydrates |
| iii. | Pancreatic Amylase | c. | Converts trypsinogen to trypsin |
| iv. | Lipase | d. | Hydrolyze fat molecules into fatty acids monoglycerides |
- ✓
i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
- B
i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
- C
i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
- D
i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c
AnswerCorrect option: A. i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
View full question & answer→MCQ 1871 Mark
Identify the enzyme responsible for conversion of starch to maltose.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1881 Mark
Number of teeth present in each jaw is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1891 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
- A
Digestion of starch begins in the mouth.
- B
Lipids are absorbed in the lacteals.
- ✓
About 90% of absorption takes place in the large intestine.
- D
Digestion of proteins mainly takes place in the stomach.
AnswerCorrect option: C. About 90% of absorption takes place in the large intestine.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1901 Mark
Appendix is a vestigial organ in humans and functional in herbivorous animals for the digestion of ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1911 Mark
______ is used for conversion of 3-PGA to 2-PGA in glycolysis.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1921 Mark
Glycolysis is the source of energy production in ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1931 Mark
Identify the reasons due to which less energy is produced during anaerobic respiration than in aerobic respiration.
$(i)$ Incomplete breakdown of the respiratory substrate.
$(ii) \ \text{NADH} _2$ does not produce $\text{ATP},$ as electron transport is absent.
$(iii)$ Glycolysis does not occur during anaerobic respiration.
AnswerCorrect option: A. $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$
$\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 1941 Mark
______ refers to the physical process by which gaseous exchange takes place between the atmosphere and the lungs.
- A
- B
- ✓
- D
Extracellular respiration
View full question & answer→MCQ 1951 Mark
Where does the oxidative phosphorylation occur?
- A
- B
- C
Outer mitochondrial membrane
- ✓
Inner mitochondrial membrane
AnswerCorrect option: D. Inner mitochondrial membrane
View full question & answer→MCQ 1961 Mark
Maltose - X + Y, Identify X and Y in the presence of the enzyme maltase.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1971 Mark
In which of the following RNA is genetic material?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1981 Mark
Identify the option that correctly describes the amphoteric nature of proteins.
- A
Proteins can act as only bases.
- B
Proteins only show presence of non-polar amino acids.
- C
Proteins can act as only acids.
- ✓
Proteins can act as both acids and bases.
AnswerCorrect option: D. Proteins can act as both acids and bases.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1991 Mark
____________ are esters of saturated fatty acids with long chain alcohols and ketones.
View full question & answer→MCQ 2001 Mark
Chemically all living organisms have three basic types of macromolecules, which are polymers of simple subunits called ____________.
View full question & answer→