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MCQ

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200 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 11 Mark
The truth-table given below is for which gate?
A B C
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
  • A
    XOR
  • NAND
  • C
    OR
  • D
    AND
Answer
Correct option: B.
NAND
B
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MCQ 21 Mark
A transistor when connected in common emitter mode has a ____________.
  • A
    high input resistance and a low output resistance
  • B
    high input resistance and a high output resistance
  • very low input resistance and a low output resistance
  • D
    medium input resistance and high output resistance
Answer
Correct option: C.
very low input resistance and a low output resistance
C
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MCQ 31 Mark
The maximum efficiency of full-wave rectifier is ____________.
  • 81.2 %
  • B
    100 %
  • C
    25.20 %
  • D
    40.6 %
Answer
Correct option: A.
81.2 %
A
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MCQ 41 Mark
What percentage of radioactive substance is left after five half-lives?
  • A
    20 %
  • About 3 %
  • C
    5 %
  • D
    About 97 %
Answer
Correct option: B.
About 3 %
B
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MCQ 51 Mark
A radioactive substance has half life of 3 hours. 75 % of the substance would decay in ____________.
  • A
    3 hours
  • B
    9 hours
  • C
    12 hours
  • 6 hours
Answer
Correct option: D.
6 hours
D
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MCQ 61 Mark
The relation between magnetic moment of revolving electron 'M' and principle quantum number 'n' is ______.
  • M `alpha` n
  • B
    M `alpha 1/"n"`
  • C
    M `alpha "n"^2`
  • D
    M `alpha "n"^3`
Answer
Correct option: A.
M `alpha` n
A
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MCQ 71 Mark
The time of revolution of an electron around a nucleus of charge Ze in $n ^{\text {th }}$ Bohr orbit is directly proportional to ____________.
  • `"n"^3/"Z"^2`
  • B
    `"n"^2/"Z"`
  • C
    n
  • D
    `"Z"/"n"`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`"n"^3/"Z"^2`
A
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MCQ 81 Mark
A photon of wavelength $3315 \mathring A$ falls on a photocathode and an electron of energy $3 \times 10^{-19} J$ is ejected. The threshold wavelength of photon is [Planck's constant $( h )=6.63 \times 10^{-34} J . s$, velocity of light $( c )=3 \times 10^8 m / s$ ] ____________.
  • A
    $5000 \mathring A$
  • $6630 \mathring A$
  • C
    $3315 \mathring A$
  • D
    $1130 \mathring A$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$6630 \mathring A$
B
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MCQ 91 Mark
In photoelectric effect, graph of saturation current versus frequency of light is plotted. The nature of the graph will be ____________.
  • parallel to X-axis
  • B
    straight line
  • C
    straight upto threshold frequency and decays exponentially after
  • D
    parabolic
Answer
Correct option: A.
parallel to X-axis
A
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MCQ 101 Mark
At what frequency (approximate) will the inductive reactance of 4 H inductance be equal to the capacitive reactance of 4 µF capacitance?
  • A
    60 Hz
  • 40 Hz
  • C
    20 Hz
  • D
    80 Hz
Answer
Correct option: B.
40 Hz
B
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MCQ 111 Mark
With an increase in the frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive reactance ______.
  • A
    decreases
  • B
    decreases sharply
  • increases
  • D
    remains constant
Answer
Correct option: C.
increases
C
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MCQ 121 Mark
The readings of ammeter and voltmeter in the following circuit are respectively 
Image
  • A
    2.25 A, 220 V
  • B
    1.5 A, 100 V
  • C
    1.2 A, 120 V
  • 2.75 A, 220 V
Answer
Correct option: D.
2.75 A, 220 V
D
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MCQ 131 Mark
A 60 `Omega` electric heater is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz mains supply. The peak value of electric current flowing in the circuit is approximately ______.
  • A
    7.1 A
  • 4.7 A
  • C
    10 A
  • D
    5.0 A
Answer
Correct option: B.
4.7 A
B
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MCQ 141 Mark
The mutual inductance between two coils is 0.09 henry. If the current in the primary coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.006 s, the e.m.f. induced in the secondary coil at that instant is ____________.
  • A
    200 V
  • 300 V
  • C
    180 V
  • D
    120 V
Answer
Correct option: B.
300 V
B
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MCQ 151 Mark
A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is ____________. 
Image
  • 2rBv and R is at higher potential
  • B
    zero
  • C
    $B v \pi r^2 / 2$ and P is at higher potentia
  • D
    πrBv and R is at higher potential
Answer
Correct option: A.
2rBv and R is at higher potential
A
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MCQ 161 Mark
The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic materials is ____________.
  • positive, but small
  • B
    negative
  • C
    negative and very high
  • D
    positive, but very high
Answer
Correct option: A.
positive, but small
A
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MCQ 171 Mark
The electron in the hydrogen atom is moving with a speed of $1.5 \times 10^6 m / s$ in an orbit of radius $2 \mathring A$. Magnetic moment of the revolving electron is.............
  • A
    $10^{-23} Am ^2$
  • $2.4 \times 10^{-23} Am ^2$
  • C
    $10^{-20} Am ^2$
  • D
    $3.2 \times 10^{-19} Am ^2$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$2.4 \times 10^{-23} Am ^2$
B
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MCQ 181 Mark
The magnetic flux near the axis and inside the air core solenoid of length 60 cm carrying current ' I ' is $1.57 \times 10^{-6} Wb$. Its magnetic moment will be ..............
(cross-sectional area is very small as compared to length of solenoid, $\mu_0=4 \pi \times 10^{-7} SI$ unit)
  • A
    0.25 A
  • 0.75 A
  • C
    1 A
  • D
    0.50 A
Answer
Correct option: B.
0.75 A
B
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MCQ 191 Mark
A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current I. It is held in the XZ plane in a magnetic field B `hat"i".` The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is: ____________.
  • `"B"pi"r"^2"IN"`
  • B
    `("B"pi"r"^2"I")/"N"`
  • C
    `("Br"^2"I")/(pi"N")`
  • D
    Zero
Answer
Correct option: A.
`"B"pi"r"^2"IN"`
A
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MCQ 201 Mark
A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 100 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength $0.4 Wb / m ^2$. The coil carries a current of 2.5 A . If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of $30^{\circ}$ with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be.............
  • 1.04 Nm
  • B
    2.12 Nm
  • C
    0.24 Nm
  • D
    0.15 Nm
Answer
Correct option: A.
1.04 Nm
A
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MCQ 211 Mark
A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω has a current sensitivity of 5 div/mA. The instrument has 50 divisions. It can be converted into a voltmeter reading up to 25 volts by connecting a resistance of ______
  • A
    2480 Ω in parallel
  • 2480 Ω in series
  • C
    20 Ω in parallel
  • D
    1240 Ω in series.
Answer
Correct option: B.
2480 Ω in series
B
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MCQ 221 Mark
A voltmeter of range 3 V and resistance 200 `Omega` cannot be converted into an ammeter of rang ____________.
  • A
    10 A
  • 10 mA
  • C
    1 A
  • D
    100 mA
Answer
Correct option: B.
10 mA
B
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MCQ 231 Mark
A student connected the circuit as shown in the figure to determine the internal resistance of a cell E1 by potentiometer (E > E1). He is unable to obtain the null point because ______.
Image
  • A
    polarities of battery E are not connected properly.
  • B
    resistance 'R' should be connected in series with E1.
  • C
    plug key K shold be connected in parallel with R.
  • polarities of cell E1 are not connected properly.
Answer
Correct option: D.
polarities of cell E1 are not connected properly.
D
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MCQ 241 Mark
The current in the arm CD of the circuit will beImage
  • $i_2+i_3$
  • B
    $i_1+i_3$
  • C
    $i_1+i_2$
  • D
    $i_1-i_2+i_3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$i_2+i_3$
A
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MCQ 251 Mark
Two condensers of capacities 'C' and '2C' are connected in parallel and then in senes with $3^{\text {rd }}$ condenser of capacity '3C'. The combination is charged to 'V' volt. The charge on the condenser of capacity 'C' is ______
  • `(CV)/2`
  • B
    CV
  • C
    2CV
  • D
    `(CV)/3`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`(CV)/2`
A
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MCQ 261 Mark
Five identical capacitors, of capacitance 20 µF each, are connected to a battery of 150 V, in a combination as shown in the diagram. What is the total amount of charge stored? 
Image
  • A
    $10 \times 10^{-3} C$
  • $3 \times 10^{-3} C$
  • C
    $12 \times 10^{-3} C$
  • D
    $15 \times 10^{-3} C$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$3 \times 10^{-3} C$
B
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MCQ 271 Mark
A plane wavefront of wavelength `lambda`. is incident on a slit of width a. The angular width of principal maximum is ______.
  • A
    `"a"/(22lambda)`
  • B
    `"a"/lambda`
  • `(22lambda)/"a"`
  • D
    `lambda/"a"`
Answer
Correct option: C.
`(22lambda)/"a"`
C
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MCQ 281 Mark
Light waves from two coherent sources arrive at two points on a screen with a path difference of zero and λ/2. The ratio of the intensities at the points is ______
  • A
    two : one
  • B
    one : two
  • C
    one : one
  • infinity : one
Answer
Correct option: D.
infinity : one
D
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MCQ 291 Mark
If two waves represented by `"y"_1 = 3 "sin" omega "t"` and `"y"_2 = 5 "sin" (omega "t" + pi/3)` interfere at a point, then the amplitude of the resulting wave will be about ____________.
  • A
    3.5
  • 7
  • C
    5
  • D
    6
Answer
Correct option: B.
7
B
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MCQ 301 Mark
An organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. Its fourth overtone is 600 Hz. Find the type of the pipe.
  • A
    closed at one end
  • B
    sometimes open sometimes closed
  • C
    closed at both ends
  • open at both ends
Answer
Correct option: D.
open at both ends
D
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MCQ 311 Mark
A transverse wave of amplitude 0.05 m and frequency 250 Hz is travelling along a stretched string with a speed of 100 m/s. What would be the displacement of a particle at a distance 1.1 m origin after 0.02 second?

`[sin pi/2=1, cos pi/2=0]`

  • 0.05 m
  • B
    0.02 m
  • C
    0.1 m
  • D
    0.15 m
Answer
Correct option: A.
0.05 m
A
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MCQ 321 Mark
The total energy of the body executing S.H.M. is E. The kinetic energy of the body, when the displacement is half of the amplitude is ______.
  • `(3"E")/4`
  • B
    `"E"/2`
  • C
    `"E"/4`
  • D
    `sqrt3/4` E
Answer
Correct option: A.
`(3"E")/4`
A
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MCQ 331 Mark
The velocities of a particle performing linear S.H.M are 0.13 m/s and 0.12 m/s, when it is at 0.12 m and 0.13 m from the mean position respectively. If the body starts from mean position, the equation of motion is ____________.
  • A
    `"x" = sqrt313 "sin" sqrt313 "t"`
  • B
    `"x" = sqrt313 "cos" sqrt313 "t"`
  • `"x" = "sin" sqrt313 "t"`
  • D
    x = sint
Answer
Correct option: C.
`"x" = "sin" sqrt313 "t"`
C
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MCQ 341 Mark
$8 m^3$ of a gas is heated at the pressure $10^5 N / m ^2$ until its volume increases by $10 \%$. Then, the external work done by the gas is ____________.
  • $8 \times 10^4 J$
  • B
    $4 \times 10^5 J$
  • C
    $10^6 J$
  • D
    $10^4 J$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$8 \times 10^4 J$
A
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MCQ 351 Mark
The sum of the absorptance, reflectance, and transmittance of a body is ______.
  • 1
  • B
    3
  • C
    2
  • D
    `infty`
Answer
Correct option: A.
1
A
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MCQ 361 Mark
The average force applied on the walls of a closed container depends as '${ }^{\prime} T^{ X }$,, where 'T' is the temperature of an ideal gas. The value of 'x' is ______.
  • A
    zero
  • B
    2
  • C
    3
  • 1
Answer
Correct option: D.
1
D
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MCQ 371 Mark
On the surface of the liquid in equilibrium, molecules of the liquid possess ____________.
  • A
    maximum kinetic energy
  • B
    minimum kinetic energy
  • maximum potential energy
  • D
    minimum potential energy
Answer
Correct option: C.
maximum potential energy
C
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MCQ 381 Mark
A mercury drop of radius 'R' is divided into 27 droplets of same size. The radius 'r' of each droplet is ______.
  • `r=R/3`
  • B
    `r=R/9`
  • C
    r = 3R
  • D
    `r=R/27`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`r=R/3`
A
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MCQ 391 Mark
A disc of mass 10 kg and radius 0.1 m/s rotating at 120 r.p.m. A retarding torque brings it to rest in 10s. If the same torque is due to force applied tangentially on the rim of the disc then magnitude of force is ______.
  • A
    0.8 πN
  • B
    0.4 πN
  • 0.2 πN
  • D
    0.1 πN
Answer
Correct option: C.
0.2 πN
C
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MCQ 401 Mark
A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. The wheel is starting from rest and it rotates through an angle $\theta_1$, in first two seconds. In the next two seconds, it rotates through an angle $\theta_2$. The ratio $\theta_1 / \theta_2$ is ____________.
  • A
    `1/6`
  • `1/3`
  • C
    `1/2`
  • D
    `1/4`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`1/3`
B
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MCQ 411 Mark
In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output. The circuit represents ______. 
Image
  • A
    AND gate
  • B
    NOR gate
  • OR gate
  • D
    NAND gate
Answer
Correct option: C.
OR gate
C
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MCQ 421 Mark
A large metal plate of area $1.0 m^2$ is placed in electric field. The magnitude E of the electric field is 5.5 N/C. What is the magnitude of charge on the plate?
  • 97 pC
  • B
    4.88 pC
  • C
    48.6 pC
  • D
    9.7 pC
Answer
Correct option: A.
97 pC
A
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MCQ 431 Mark
If astronomical telescope of length 1.53 m has magnifying power of magnitude 50, the values of $f_0$ and $f_e$ are ____________.
  • A
    $f _0=1.55 m, f _{ e }=-0.02 m$
  • B
    $f _{ o }=0.03 m, f _{ e }=1.5 m$
  • $f _{ o }=1.5 m, f _{ e }=0.03 m$
  • D
    $f _{ o }=1.5 m, f _{ e }=-0.03 m$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$f _{ o }=1.5 m, f _{ e }=0.03 m$
C
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MCQ 441 Mark
The equation of a plane progressive wave is y = 0.09sin8 `pi` `["t" - "x"/20]`.When it is reflected at a rigid support, its amplitude becomes `2/3`rd of its 3 previous value. The equation of the reflected wave is ______.
  • y = - 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" + "x"/20]`
  • B
    y = 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" + "x"/20]`
  • C
    y = 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" - "x"/20]`
  • D
    y = - 0.09 sin 8 `pi` `["t" - "x"/20]`
Answer
Correct option: A.
y = - 0.06 sin 8 `pi` `["t" + "x"/20]`
A
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MCQ 451 Mark
The wave of the wavelength 30 cm and frequency 100 Hz will be ______.
  • y = A sin 2`pi` (100t - x/30)
  • B
    y = A sin 2`pi` (0.01 t + 30x)
  • C
    y =A sin 2`pi` (t/0.01 - 30x)
  • D
    y = A sin2`pi` (0.1 t - 30x)
Answer
Correct option: A.
y = A sin 2`pi` (100t - x/30)
A
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MCQ 461 Mark
Two moles of an ideal diatomic gas occupies a volume V at 27° C. The gas expands adiabatically to a volume 2V. Calculate the final temperature of the gas is nearly ____________.
  • A
    195 K
  • 228 K
  • C
    89 K
  • D
    395 K
Answer
Correct option: B.
228 K
B
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MCQ 471 Mark
A satellite of mass 'm', revolving round the earth of radius 'r' has kinetic energy (E). Its angular momentum is ______.
  • A
    $`(mEr^2)^(1/2)`$
  • $`(2mEr^2)^(1/2)`$
  • C
    $\left( mEr ^2\right)$
  • D
    $`(2mEr^2)`$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$`(2mEr^2)^(1/2)`$
B
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MCQ 481 Mark
Reason of weightlessness in a satellite is ____________.
  • A
    None of these
  • Zero reaction force by satellite surface
  • C
    Zero gravity
  • D
    Centre of mass
Answer
Correct option: B.
Zero reaction force by satellite surface
B
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MCQ 491 Mark
The moment of the couple is independent of ______
  • A
    angle made by the line of action of force.
  • B
    the magnitude of the force.
  • C
    the magnitude of the distance between the line of action of force and perpendicular distance.
  • the point about which the moment is found.
Answer
Correct option: D.
the point about which the moment is found.
D
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MCQ 501 Mark
The ratio of the angular speed of minute hand and hour hand of a watch is ____________.
  • A
    6 : 1
  • B
    1 : 12
  • C
    1 : 6
  • 12 : 1
Answer
Correct option: D.
12 : 1
D
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MCQ 511 Mark
Which among the following polymers is obtained first by formation of salt by neutralization and then by step growth polymerization?
  • A
    Novolac
  • Nylon-6, 6
  • C
    Nylon-6
  • D
    Polyester
Answer
Correct option: B.
Nylon-6, 6
B
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MCQ 521 Mark
Which among the following polymers can NOT be remoulded?
  • A
    Polythene
  • B
    Polystyrene
  • Bakelite
  • D
    PVC
Answer
Correct option: C.
Bakelite
C
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MCQ 531 Mark
Which among the following polymers is a copolymer?
  • A
    Polystyrene
  • B
    Polythene
  • ABS plastic
  • D
    Nylon-6
Answer
Correct option: C.
ABS plastic
C
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MCQ 541 Mark
Identify the side chain –R present in amino acid lysine.
  • $-\left( CH _2\right)_4- NH _2$
  • B
    $- CH _2 OH$
  • C
    $C _6 H _5-$
  • D
    $- CH \left( CH _3\right)_2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$-\left( CH _2\right)_4- NH _2$
A
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MCQ 551 Mark
The side chain R in cysteine is ____________.
  • A
    $- CH _2 Ph$
  • B
    $- CH _2 OH$
  • $- CH _2 SH$
  • D
    $- CH _2 NH _2$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$- CH _2 SH$
C
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MCQ 561 Mark
On hydrolysis sucrose gives ____________.
  • A
    2 moles of galactose
  • B
    2 moles of glucose
  • equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose
  • D
    2 moles of fructose
Answer
Correct option: C.
equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose
C
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MCQ 571 Mark
Aniline on reaction with Bromine water at room temperature gives ____________.
  • A
    o - Bromoaniline
  • 2, 4, 6 - Tribromoaniline
  • C
    p - Bromoaniline
  • D
    m - Bromoaniline
Answer
Correct option: B.
2, 4, 6 - Tribromoaniline
B
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MCQ 581 Mark
Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with 'X' gives benzene. Identify X.
  • A
    CuCN/KCN
  • $C _2 H _5 OH$
  • C
    $H _2 O$
  • D
    $CHCl _3$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$C _2 H _5 OH$
B
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MCQ 591 Mark
Which one of the following compounds when heated with KOH and $CHCl_3$ gives carbylamine test?
  • A
    $R _2 NH$
  • B
    ROH
  • C
    RCN
  • $RNH _2$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$RNH _2$
D
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MCQ 601 Mark
Which of the following represents the structure of isopropyl methyl ketone?
  • A
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \ce{O}\\
    ||\\
    \ce{CH3 - CH2 - C - CH2 - CH3}
    \end{array}$
  • B
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{..............}\ce{O}\\
    \phantom{..............}||\\
    \ce{CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - C - CH3}
    \end{array}$
  • $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{.......}\ce{O}\\
    \phantom{.......}||\\
    \ce{CH3 - CH - C - CH3}\\
    |\phantom{.......}\\
    \ce{CH3}\phantom{....}
    \end{array}$
  • D
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{.......................}\ce{O}\\
    \phantom{.......................}||\\
    \ce{CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - C - H}
    \end{array}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{.......}\ce{O}\\
\phantom{.......}||\\
\ce{CH3 - CH - C - CH3}\\
|\phantom{.......}\\
\ce{CH3}\phantom{....}
\end{array}$
C
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MCQ 611 Mark
Which of the following is obtained on alkaline hydrolysis of 1,1-dichlorocyclohexane?
  • A
    Cyclohexanol
  • Cyclohexanone
  • C
    Benzaldehyde
  • D
    Cyclohexane carbaldebyde
Answer
Correct option: B.
Cyclohexanone
B
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MCQ 621 Mark
The formation of aldehyde from an alkyl cyanide using $SnCl _2 /$ conc. HCl is known as ____________.
  • A
    Gattermann Koch formylation
  • Stephen reaction
  • C
    Rosenmund reduction
  • D
    Etard reaction
Answer
Correct option: B.
Stephen reaction
B
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MCQ 631 Mark
When ethyl methyl ether is treated with cold concentrated HI, it gives two products. Products formed are ____________.
  • A
    $CH _3 OH + C _2 H _5 I$
  • B
    $CH _3 CH _2 OH + CH _3 OH + CH _3 I$
  • C
    $CH _3 CH _2 I + CH _3 I + H _2 O$
  • $CH _3 I + C _2 H _5 OH$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$CH _3 I + C _2 H _5 OH$
D
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MCQ 641 Mark
1-Methoxypropane is a metamer of ____________.
  • diethyl ether
  • B
    methoxymethane
  • C
    ethyl methyl ether
  • D
    1-ethoxypropane
Answer
Correct option: A.
diethyl ether
A
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MCQ 651 Mark
Methoxy ethane on reaction with hot concentrated HI gives ____________.
  • A
    iodomethane and ethanol
  • iodomethane and iodoethane
  • C
    methanol and ethanol
  • D
    methanol and iodoethane
Answer
Correct option: B.
iodomethane and iodoethane
B
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MCQ 661 Mark
The most suitable reagent(s) required to prepare 1-iodobutane from but-1-ene is/are ____________.
  • A
    HI in the presence of $\left( C _6 H _5 CO \right)_2 O _2$
  • B
    Raney Ni, $\Delta$
  • C
    $I _2$ in $HIO _3$
  • HBr in the presence of $\left( C _6 H _5 CO \right)_2 O _2$ and Nal in dry acetone
Answer
Correct option: D.
HBr in the presence of $\left( C _6 H _5 CO \right)_2 O _2$ and Nal in dry acetone
D
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MCQ 671 Mark
Identify the name of reaction in which alkyl fluorides are prepared by heating alkyl bromide with metallic fluorides.
  • A
    Sandmeyer reaction
  • B
    Wurtz reaction
  • C
    Finkelstein reaction
  • Swartz reaction
Answer
Correct option: D.
Swartz reaction
D
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MCQ 681 Mark
How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in neopentyl chloride?
  • A
    Three
  • Zero
  • C
    Two
  • D
    One
Answer
Correct option: B.
Zero
B
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MCQ 691 Mark
Identify the increasing order of effective magnetic moment of the following elements in their +2 oxidation state.

[Fe (Z = 26), Co (Z = 27), Ni (Z = 28), Cu (Z = 29)]

  • A
    Fe < Co < Ni < Cu
  • Cu < Ni < Co < Fe
  • C
    Cu < Co < Fe < Ni
  • D
    Co < Cu < Fe < Ni
Answer
Correct option: B.
Cu < Ni < Co < Fe
B
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MCQ 701 Mark
Chlorophyll and haemoglobin are complexes of ____________ respectively.
  • Mg, Fe
  • B
    Co, Fe
  • C
    Fe, Mg
  • D
    Mg, Co
Answer
Correct option: A.
Mg, Fe
A
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MCQ 711 Mark
Consider the two complexes given below:

$\ce{\underset{(I)}{[Co(NH3)5SO4]Br}}$ and $\ce{\underset{(II)}{[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4}}$

I and II are ____________ isomers.

  • A
    solvate
  • B
    coordination
  • C
    linkage
  • ionization
Answer
Correct option: D.
ionization
D
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MCQ 721 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
  • A
    In lanthanoids, the d-orbitals are filled gradually while in actinoids, f-orbitals are filled gradually.
  • B
    Lanthanoids form complexes easily as compared to actinoids.
  • Lanthanoids do not form oxocations, but actinoids form oxocations.
  • D
    Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Lanthanoids do not form oxocations, but actinoids form oxocations.
C
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MCQ 731 Mark
The transition metal(s) present in limonite is(are) ____________.
  • A
    Cu, Fe
  • B
    Zn
  • C
    Zn, Fe
  • Fe
Answer
Correct option: D.
Fe
D
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MCQ 741 Mark
Spin-only magnetic moment of $mn ^{2+}$ ion is ____________.
  • A
    `sqrt8 "BM"`
  • B
    `sqrt3 "BM"`
  • `sqrt35 "BM"`
  • D
    `sqrt24 "BM"`
Answer
Correct option: C.
`sqrt35 "BM"`
C
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MCQ 751 Mark
Select the CORRECT match.
  • A
    Atomic radius: O > S > Se

    Ionisation enthalpy: O < S < Se

  • Atomic radius: O < S < Se

    Ionisation enthalpy: O > S > Se

  • C
    Atomic radius: O > S > Se

    Ionisation enthalpy: O > S > Se

  • D
    Atomic radius: O < S < Se

    Ionisation enthalpy: O < S < Se

Answer
Correct option: B.
Atomic radius: O < S < Se

Ionisation enthalpy: O > S > Se

B
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MCQ 771 Mark
The number of moles of chlorine required to oxidise 2 mol of iodine to iodate in presence of water is ____________.
  • A
    2
  • B
    5
  • 1
  • D
    10
Answer
Correct option: C.
1
C
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MCQ 781 Mark
The sulfuric acid obtained by contact process is ____________ % pure.
  • A
    99 - 100
  • B
    75 - 80
  • 96 - 98
  • D
    80 - 85
Answer
Correct option: C.
96 - 98
C
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MCQ 791 Mark
The time required to decompose $SO _2 Cl _2$ to half of it's initial amount is 60 minutes. Calculate rate constant for this first order reaction.
  • A
    $1.551 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
  • $1.155 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
  • C
    $4.158 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
  • D
    $2.651 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$1.155 \times 10^{-2} min^{-1}$
B
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MCQ 801 Mark
In the reaction $2 SO _{2_{( g )}} O _{2_{( g )}} \longrightarrow 2 SO _{3_{( g )}}$ the rate of disappearance of $SO _2$ is $1.28 \times 10^{-5} M / s$. What is the rate of appearance of $SO _3$ ?
  • A
    $2.56 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
  • $1.25 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
  • C
    $0.32 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
  • D
    $0.64 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$1.25 \times 10^{-5} M / s$
B
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MCQ 821 Mark
Nernst equation for the following cell reaction at 298 K is:$\ce{Mg_{(s)} | Mg^{2+}_{( aq)} || Ag^+_{( aq)} | Ag_{(s)}}$
  • A
    $E _{\text {cell }}= `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/2 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+])`$
  • B
    $E _{\text {cell }}= `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
  • $E _{\text {cell }} = `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/2 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
  • D
    $E _{\text {cell }}= `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/3 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$E _{\text {cell }} = `"E"_"cell"^0 - 0.0592/2 log_10 (["Mg"^(2+)])/(["Ag"^+]^2)`$
C
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MCQ 831 Mark
A system is changed from an initial state to a final state by a manner such that ∆H = Q. If the change from initial state to final state was made by a different path, then ____________.
  • A
    both ∆H and Q will be different from first path
  • ∆H will be the same but not Q, of the first path
  • C
    Q will be the same but not ∆H, of the first path
  • D
    ∆H and Q will be the same as the first path
Answer
Correct option: B.
∆H will be the same but not Q, of the first path
B
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MCQ 841 Mark
The enthalpy change for two reactions are given by the equations$\ce{2Cr_{(s)} + 1.5 O2_{(g)} -> Cr2O3_{(s)}}$;
$\Delta H _1=-1130 kJ \ldots . \ldots . . . . .( i )$
$\ce{C_{(s)} + 0.5 O2_{(g)} -> CO_{(g)}}$;
$\Delta H _2=-110 kJ \ldots . \ldots . . . \text { (ii) }$
What is the enthalpy change, in kJ, for the following reaction?
$\ce{3C_{(s)} + Cr2O3_{(s)} -> 2Cr_{(s)} + 3CO_{(g)}}$
  • A
    −1460
  • B
    1460
  • C
    −800
  • 800
Answer
Correct option: D.
800
D
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MCQ 851 Mark
Which of the following is CORRECT for an aqueous solution of $NH _4 CN ?$
$\left[ K _{ a }\right.$ of $HCN =4.0 \times 10^{-10}, K_{ b }$ for $\left.NH _4 OH =1.8 \times 10^{-5}\right]$
  • A
    The solution turns blue litmus red.
  • B
    The solution is neutral.
  • The solution is basic.
  • D
    The solution contains equal concentration of $H _3 O ^{+}$and $OH ^{-}$ions.
Answer
Correct option: C.
The solution is basic.
C
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MCQ 861 Mark
The degree of ionization of 0.10 M solution of a weak monobasic acid is 4%. Find the value of $K_a$.
  • A
    $1.6 \times 10^{-5}$
  • B
    $1.6 \times 10^{-3}$
  • $1.6 \times 10^{-4}$
  • D
    $1.6 \times 10^{-2}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$1.6 \times 10^{-4}$
C
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MCQ 871 Mark
The unit of Henry's law constant is ____________.
  • A
    $L mol ^{-1} \text { bar }^{-1}$
  • B
    $mol L ^{-1} \text { bar }$
  • $mol L ^{-1} \text { bar }^{-1}$
  • D
    $mol^{-1} L^{-1} \text { bar }$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$mol L ^{-1} \text { bar }^{-1}$
C
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MCQ 881 Mark
What type of solution is obtained when benzoic acid is added in Benzene?
  • A
    liquid in liquid
  • B
    Solid in solid
  • C
    liquid in solid
  • Solid in liquid
Answer
Correct option: D.
Solid in liquid
D
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MCQ 891 Mark
Copper crystallises with fee unit cell. If the radius of copper atom is 127.8 pm, calculate the density of copper? (At. mass: Cu $\left.=63.55 g mol ^{-1}\right)$
  • A
    $4.4 g cm ^{-3}$
  • B
    $9.5 g cm ^{-3}$
  • $8.9 g cm ^{-3}$
  • D
    $1.89 g cm ^{-3}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$8.9 g cm ^{-3}$
C
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MCQ 901 Mark
The total volume occupied by particles m simple cubic unit cell is ____________.
  • A
    `(π "a"^3)/2`
  • `(π "a"^3)/6`
  • C
    `(sqrt3 π "a"^3)/8`
  • D
    `(sqrt2 π "a"^3)/3`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`(π "a"^3)/6`
B
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MCQ 911 Mark
Optical isomerism is exhibited by ____________.
  • A
    1, 3-Dichloropropane
  • B
    1, 1-Dichloropropane
  • 1, 2-Dichloropropane
  • D
    2, 2-Dichloropropane
Answer
Correct option: C.
1, 2-Dichloropropane
C
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MCQ 921 Mark
lUP AC name of

$\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{}\ce{C2H5}\phantom{.}\ce{Cl}\phantom{....}\ce{CH3}\phantom{......}\\
\phantom{}|\phantom{.....}|\phantom{......}|\phantom{........}\\
\ce{H3C - CH2 - CH - CH - CH - CH2 - CH2 - CH3}
\end{array}$

  • A
    4-Chloro-3-ethyl-2-methylheptane
  • B
    4-Chloro-5-methyl-3-ethyloctane
  • 4-Chloro-3-ethyl-5-methyloctane
  • D
    5-Chloro-6-ethyl-4-methyloctane
Answer
Correct option: C.
4-Chloro-3-ethyl-5-methyloctane
C
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MCQ 931 Mark
The order of coagulating power of following ions in the coagulation of a positive sol is:

i. $\ce{PO^{3-}_4}$

ii. $\ce{SO^{2-}_4}$

iii. $\ce{[Fe(CN)6]^{4-}}$

iv. $\ce{NO^-_3}$

  • A
    iv < ii < iii < i
  • B
    i < ii < iii < iv
  • C
    iv < i < ii < iii
  • iv < ii < i < iii
Answer
Correct option: D.
iv < ii < i < iii
D
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MCQ 941 Mark
171 g of sucrose on hydrolysis gives ____________ mole(s) of glucose.

(Atomic wt: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)

  • 0.5
  • B
    2
  • C
    1
  • D
    1.5
Answer
Correct option: A.
0.5
A
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MCQ 951 Mark
At what temperature the volume of a gas becomes absolutely zero?
  • A
    273.15°C
  • - 273.15°C
  • C
    - 273.15 K
  • D
    273.15 K
Answer
Correct option: B.
- 273.15°C
B
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MCQ 961 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT for alkali metals?
  • A
    Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Ionic radii)
  • Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Ionization enthalpy)
  • C
    Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Atomic radii)
  • D
    Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs (Melting point)
Answer
Correct option: B.
Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Ionization enthalpy)
B
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MCQ 971 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT for the following reaction?$\ce{2Zn_{(s)} + O2_{(g)} -> 2ZnO_{(s)}}$
  • A
    The oxidation number of O decreases from 0 to −2.
  • B
    Zn is the reducing agent.
  • C
    $O _2$ is the oxidizing agent.
  • Zn accepts electrons.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Zn accepts electrons.
D
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MCQ 981 Mark
The below given molecular geometry corresponds to which of the following molecule?
Image
  • A
    $SiCl _4$
  • B
    $SF _4$
  • C
    $CH _4$
  • $XeF _4$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$XeF _4$
D
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MCQ 991 Mark
The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is -3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively ______.
  • A
    -3.4 eV, -3.4 eV
  • B
    -3.4 eV, -6.8 eV
  • 3.4 eV, -6.8 eV
  • D
    3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
Answer
Correct option: C.
3.4 eV, -6.8 eV
C
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MCQ 1001 Mark
The volume in $dm ^3$ occupied by 15.0 g of ethane at STP is____________.
  • A
    56.0
  • B
    22.4
  • C
    44.8
  • 11.2
Answer
Correct option: D.
11.2
D
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MCQ 1011 Mark
'The Evil Quartet' is a concept which describes the ______.
  • A
    reasons for conservation of biodiversity.
  • B
    impact of species extinction on man.
  • C
    impact of biodiversity loss.
  • causes of the loss of biodiversity.
Answer
Correct option: D.
causes of the loss of biodiversity.
D
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MCQ 1021 Mark
Identify the plant species which is present in most number.
  • A
    Ferns
  • B
    Monocots
  • C
    Conifers
  • Dicots
Answer
Correct option: D.
Dicots
D
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MCQ 1031 Mark
Maximum species richness is observed in the ______.
  • A
    Polar regions
  • B
    Australian continent
  • C
    Temperate zone
  • Amazon rainforest
Answer
Correct option: D.
Amazon rainforest
D
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MCQ 1041 Mark
Which of the following is included in species diversity?
  • A
    Intraspecific diversity
  • B
    Species evenness
  • Both Species evenness and Species richness
  • D
    Species richness
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both Species evenness and Species richness
C
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MCQ 1051 Mark
Which stage precedes the forest stage during succession in aquatic environments?
  • A
    Submerged free floating plant
  • Scrub
  • C
    Marsh-meadow
  • D
    Reed-swamp
Answer
Correct option: B.
Scrub
B
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MCQ 1061 Mark
______ is the gradual and predictable change in the species composition of a given area.
  • Ecological succession
  • B
    Speciation
  • C
    Stratification
  • D
    Zonation
Answer
Correct option: A.
Ecological succession
A
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MCQ 1071 Mark
What is the entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area called?
  • Sere
  • B
    Pioneer community
  • C
    Climax community
  • D
    Successional community
Answer
Correct option: A.
Sere
A
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MCQ 1091 Mark
The correct description for the interspecific interaction shown in the given figure is ______
Image
  • A
    sea anemone and clownfish is an example of mutualism.
  • clownfish gets protection from predators while anemone is neither benefited nor harmed.
  • C
    both sea anemones and clownfish are benefited from this interaction.
  • D
    clownfish is benefited as it derives nutrition from tentacles of sea anemones causing harm to it.
Answer
Correct option: B.
clownfish gets protection from predators while anemone is neither benefited nor harmed.
B
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MCQ 1101 Mark
Using '-' to depict inhibition and '+' to depict benefit, mutualism between two species can be represented as ____________.
  • A
    +, −
  • B
    −, −
  • +, +
  • D
    +, O
Answer
Correct option: C.
+, +
C
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MCQ 1111 Mark
Calculate the birth rate if a population of 150 Paramoecium present in a pool increases to 450 after an hour.
  • A
    0.05
  • B
    0.1
  • C
    0.01
  • 0.5
Answer
Correct option: D.
0.5
D
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MCQ 1121 Mark
Which phase of the Logistic growth curve shows that the population density has reached the canying capacity in a habitat with limited resources?
  • A
    Log phase
  • B
    Lag phase
  • Stationary phase
  • D
    Exponential phase
Answer
Correct option: C.
Stationary phase
C
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MCQ 1131 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement I: Some snails and fish undergo hibernation to avoid summer heat.

Statement II: Polar bears undergo hibernation in winters as they are unable to migrate

  • A
    Statement I is correct and ll is incorrect.
  • Statement II is correct and I is incorrect.
  • C
    Both the statements are incorrect.
  • D
    Both the statements are correct.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Statement II is correct and I is incorrect.
B
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MCQ 1141 Mark
Biopharmaceuticals are proteins, hormones, antibodies, vaccines, or enzymes isolated from ______.
  • A
    dwarf plants
  • B
    A. tumefaciens
  • C
    herbicide plants
  • transgenic plants
Answer
Correct option: D.
transgenic plants
D
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MCQ 1151 Mark
Which of the following is/are the CORRECT step/s involved in construction of a recombinant DNA?
  • A
    Cleaving and re-joining DNA segments with 'endonuclease' alone.
  • B
    Cleaving and re-joining DNA segments with 'ligase' alone.
  • Cleaving DNA segments with 'endonuclease' and re-joining them with 'ligase'.
  • D
    Cleaving DNA segments with 'ligase' and re-joining them with endonuclease.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cleaving DNA segments with 'endonuclease' and re-joining them with 'ligase'.
C
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MCQ 1161 Mark
Which of the following is NOT involved in genetic engineering technique?

i. Combining genes from two organisms

ii. Gene cloning

iii. Transfer of lipid molecules

iv. Transfer of genes to new organisms

v. Repairing or replacing the defective genes by healthy genes

vi. Artificial synthesis of new gene

  • A
    i, iii, v and vi
  • iii
  • C
    i, ii, iv, v and vi
  • D
    ii, iii, iv and vi
Answer
Correct option: B.
iii
B
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MCQ 1171 Mark
From the following identify the methods of electrophoresis.
  • A
    PAGE
  • B
    AGE
  • All of the above
  • D
    SDS PAGE
Answer
Correct option: C.
All of the above
C
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MCQ 1181 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE regarding EcoR I?
  • A
    It is the abbreviation for bacterium Escherichia coli.
  • B
    It used to join two DNA fragments.
  • It is a restriction enzyme.
  • D
    It is a plasmid.
Answer
Correct option: C.
It is a restriction enzyme.
C
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MCQ 1191 Mark
What happens during the course of sewage decomposition?
  • A
    Initially, only methanogenic organisms predominate
  • B
    Initially only aerobic organisms predominate
  • Initially aerobic and facultatively anaerobic organisms predominate
  • D
    Initially aerobic and obligate anaerobic organisms
Answer
Correct option: C.
Initially aerobic and facultatively anaerobic organisms predominate
C
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MCQ 1201 Mark
Due to which of the following reason/s sewage water cannot be discharged directly into river?
  • A
    It may destroy the flora and fam1a of river.
  • B
    It contains pathogenic microbes.
  • C
    It contains high level of organic matter.
  • All of the above
Answer
Correct option: D.
All of the above
D
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MCQ 1211 Mark
Which of the following is/are the microbial source(s) for the enzyme pectinase?
  • A
    Aspergillus niger
  • Both Sclerotiana libertine and Aspergillus niger
  • C
    Sclerotiana libertine
  • D
    Candida lipolytica
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both Sclerotiana libertine and Aspergillus niger
B
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MCQ 1221 Mark
Study the following statements and select the correct option.
$(i)$ Curd is prepared by inoculating milk with Lactobacillus acidophilus.
$(ii)$ Yogurt is produced by curdling milk with the help of Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus.
$(iii)$ Roquefort cheese is ripened by Lactobacillus acidophilus.
$(iv)$ Penicillium Roquefort is commonly called Brewer's yeast.
  • A
    $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
  • B
    $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are correct.
  • C
    $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
  • $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
$\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
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MCQ 1231 Mark
Identify labels P, Q, R in the given figure of root showing different regions. 
Image
  • A
    P - Maturation zone, Q - Meristematic zone, R - Root cap
  • B
    P - Zone of elongation, Q - Meristematic zone, R - Maturation zone
  • C
    P - Maturation zone, Q - Root hair zone, R - Root cap
  • P - Root hair zone, Q - Zone of elongation, R - Meristematic zone
Answer
Correct option: D.
P - Root hair zone, Q - Zone of elongation, R - Meristematic zone
D
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MCQ 1241 Mark
Which of the following set of medications is generally prescribed for malaria?
  • Artesunate, sulfadoxine, pyrimethamine
  • B
    Artesunate, diethylcarbamazine, levamisole
  • C
    Penicillin, ampicillin and chloramphenicol
  • D
    Piperazine, mebendazole, pyrantel
Answer
Correct option: A.
Artesunate, sulfadoxine, pyrimethamine
A
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MCQ 1251 Mark
Which antigen would be present on the RBC surface of a person with A blood?
  • A
    both A and B
  • B
    no antigens
  • C
    B antigen
  • A antigen
Answer
Correct option: D.
A antigen
D
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MCQ 1261 Mark
Identify the factors involved in innate immunity and choose the correct option.

i. Antibodies

ii. Skin

iii. Tears

iv. Neutrophils

v. T-lymphocytes

vi. Macrophages

vii. lgG

viii. Saliva

  • A
    i, iii, v, vi, vii, viii
  • B
    ii, iii, v, vi
  • ii, iii, iv, vi, viii
  • D
    ii, iii, iv, v, vii, viii
Answer
Correct option: C.
ii, iii, iv, vi, viii
C
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MCQ 1271 Mark
Due to which property of acquired immune system does a second encounter of the same pathogen brings about a stronger and quicker immune response?
  • A
    Specificity
  • Memory
  • C
    Discrimination between self and non self
  • D
    Diversity
Answer
Correct option: B.
Memory
B
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MCQ 1281 Mark
Toxins released by bacteria like tetanus toxin undergo______.
  • A
    Both (A) and (B)
  • B
    agglutination
  • C
    opsonisation
  • neutralisation
Answer
Correct option: D.
neutralisation
D
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MCQ 1291 Mark
Which cells are play a major role in non-specific defence against viral infections and tumors?
  • A
    Macrophages
  • B
    Memory T cells
  • Natural killer cells
  • D
    Suppressor T cells
Answer
Correct option: C.
Natural killer cells
C
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MCQ 1301 Mark
Identify the correct function of the hormone ACTH.
  • A
    It stimulates thyroid gland
  • B
    it suppresses the activity of adrenal cortex.
  • It stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce hormones.
  • D
    It stimulates pituitary gland
Answer
Correct option: C.
It stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce hormones.
C
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MCQ 1311 Mark
Which hormone is secreted in response to increasing blood calcium levels?
  • A
    Nor-adrenaline
  • Calcitonin
  • C
    Parathormone
  • D
    Adrenaline
Answer
Correct option: B.
Calcitonin
B
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MCQ 1321 Mark
Which of the following statements is TRUE for Cushing's disease?
  • It is caused due to hyper secretion of glucocorticoids.
  • B
    It is caused due to hyper secretion of mineralocorticoids.
  • C
    It is caused due to hypo secretion of hormones of adrenal medulla.
  • D
    It is characterised by low $Na ^{+}$and high $K ^{+}$concentration in plasma.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It is caused due to hyper secretion of glucocorticoids.
A
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MCQ 1331 Mark
Which diseases is caused by the hypersecretion of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids?
  • Addison's disease
  • B
    Graves' disease
  • C
    Acromegaly
  • D
    Cushing's disease
Answer
Correct option: A.
Addison's disease
A
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MCQ 1341 Mark
______ is also known as the milk ejecting hormone.
  • A
    Estrogen
  • Oxytocin
  • C
    ACTH
  • D
    Progesterone
Answer
Correct option: B.
Oxytocin
B
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MCQ 1351 Mark
What is the outcome of hypersecretion of GH in childhood?
  • Gigantism
  • B
    Dwarfism
  • C
    Simmonds' disease
  • D
    Acromegaly
Answer
Correct option: A.
Gigantism
A
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MCQ 1361 Mark
Which of the following blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?
  • A
    Coronary artery
  • B
    Hepatic vein
  • Pulmonary vein
  • D
    Pulmonary artery
Answer
Correct option: C.
Pulmonary vein
C
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MCQ 1371 Mark
Identify the CORRECT route through which impulse travels in the heart.
  • SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles
  • B
    AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His → Heart muscles
  • C
    SA node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His → AV node → Heart muscles
  • D
    AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles
Answer
Correct option: A.
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles
A
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MCQ 1381 Mark
______ externally separates ventricles from each other.
  • Inter-ventricular sulci
  • B
    Atrio-ventricular groove
  • C
    Ligamentum arteriosum
  • D
    Coronary sulcus
Answer
Correct option: A.
Inter-ventricular sulci
A
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MCQ 1391 Mark
By which of the following mitral valve and tricuspid valve are attached to the papillary muscles?
  • Chordae tendinae
  • B
    Colurnnae carnae
  • C
    Corpus callosum
  • D
    Crura cerebri
Answer
Correct option: A.
Chordae tendinae
A
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MCQ 1401 Mark
______ is a loose-fitting membrane that encloses the heart and consists of a superficial fibrous layer and a deep serous layer.
  • Pericardium
  • B
    Peritoneum
  • C
    Perichondrium
  • D
    Pleural membrane
Answer
Correct option: A.
Pericardium
A
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MCQ 1411 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT match
  • Monocytes - Secrete heparin
  • B
    Basophils - Secrete histamine and serotonin
  • C
    Eosinophils -Allergic response
  • D
    Neutrophils - Phagocytic and eat foreign organisms
Answer
Correct option: A.
Monocytes - Secrete heparin
A
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MCQ 1421 Mark
Which of the following health condition refers to the type of blood cancer in which uncontrolled increase in number of WBCs occurs?
  • A
    Leukocytopenia
  • B
    Thrombocytosis
  • Leukemia
  • D
    Leukopenia
Answer
Correct option: C.
Leukemia
C
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MCQ 1431 Mark
By which of the following emphysema is characterized?
  • A
    Inflammation of trachea
  • B
    Constriction of bronchioles
  • C
    Inflammation of larynx
  • Breakdown of alveoli
Answer
Correct option: D.
Breakdown of alveoli
D
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MCQ 1441 Mark
Which part(s) of plant is/are responsible for synthesis of gibberellins?
  • A
    Apical buds
  • B
    Young leaves
  • C
    Tips of growing roots
  • All of the above
Answer
Correct option: D.
All of the above
D
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MCQ 1451 Mark
Which of the following is the physiological role of auxins?
  • Application of auxin to cuttings results in formation of adventitious roots.
  • B
    Auxins can break seed dormancy.
  • C
    Auxins stimulate growth of lateral buds.
  • D
    Auxins are more effective than gibberellins for inducing parthenocarpy.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Application of auxin to cuttings results in formation of adventitious roots.
A
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MCQ 1461 Mark
Coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly cut coleoptile stumps.

What is the significance of the above experiment performed by Dr. F. Went?

  • A
    It demonstrated polar movement of auxins.
  • B
    It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin.
  • C
    It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances.
  • It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin.
Answer
Correct option: D.
It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin.
D
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MCQ 1471 Mark
Which of the following is a NOT a naturally occurring phytohormone?
  • NAA
  • B
    GA
  • C
    IAA
  • D
    Ethylene
Answer
Correct option: A.
NAA
A
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MCQ 1481 Mark
Plants absorb water from the ______.
  • A
    aerial parts of a plants
  • B
    all four regions of a root
  • C
    stomata
  • rhizosphere
Answer
Correct option: D.
rhizosphere
D
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MCQ 1491 Mark
Which of the following term correctly describes the microenvironment surrounding the root from which plants absorb water?
  • A
    Mesosphere
  • Rhizosphere
  • C
    Stratosphere
  • D
    Zoosphere
Answer
Correct option: B.
Rhizosphere
B
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MCQ 1501 Mark
______ refers to the water that percolates deep in the soil due to the gravity.
  • A
    Hygroscopic water
  • B
    Combined water
  • C
    Capillary water
  • Gravitational water
Answer
Correct option: D.
Gravitational water
D
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MCQ 1511 Mark
Epiphytic plants like orchids absorb water vapours from air with the help of epiphytic roots having special tissue called ____________.
  • A
    hydathodes
  • B
    lenticels
  • velamen
  • D
    phloem
Answer
Correct option: C.
velamen
C
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MCQ 1521 Mark
The cell wall is freely permeable, but the plasma membrane is ______.
  • A
    sometimes semi-fluid
  • B
    sometimes freely permeable
  • C
    impermeable
  • selectively permeable
Answer
Correct option: D.
selectively permeable
D
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MCQ 1531 Mark
Identify the heavily built, short prehistoric man having cranial capacity of about 1400 cc who is known to bury the dead.
  • Neanderthal man
  • B
    Homo habilis
  • C
    Homo erectus
  • D
    Homo sapiens
Answer
Correct option: A.
Neanderthal man
A
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MCQ 1541 Mark
Homo erectus probably existed during ____________.
  • A
    Early Pliocene epoch 12 mya
  • Middle Pleistocene epoch 1.5 mya
  • C
    Miocene epoch 20-25 mya
  • D
    Late Pliocene epoch 4 mya
Answer
Correct option: B.
Middle Pleistocene epoch 1.5 mya
B
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MCQ 1551 Mark
All are features of Homo habilis, EXCEPT ______
  • A
    He could make and use stone tools.
  • His cranial capacity was about 1400 cc.
  • C
    He had dentition more like a modern man.
  • D
    Dentition like modern man
Answer
Correct option: B.
His cranial capacity was about 1400 cc.
B
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MCQ 1561 Mark
The movement of genes into or out of a population is known as ______.
  • A
    gene variation
  • B
    genetic recombination
  • gene flow
  • D
    gene mutation
Answer
Correct option: C.
gene flow
C
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MCQ 1571 Mark
Which is TRUE for industrial melanism?
  • A
    It is an evidence of survival of fittest
  • It is an evidence in favour of Natural Selection
  • C
    It is an effect of mutation
  • D
    It is the effect of industrial pollution
Answer
Correct option: B.
It is an evidence in favour of Natural Selection
B
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MCQ 1581 Mark
Using a DNA template, synthesis of a new strand is carried out by which of the following enzyme?
  • A
    RNA primase
  • DNA polymerase
  • C
    DNA ligase
  • D
    RNA polymerase
Answer
Correct option: B.
DNA polymerase
B
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MCQ 1591 Mark
Protein synthesis and cell division is accelerated by the hormone ______.
  • A
    ACTH
  • B
    TSH
  • C
    PRL
  • STH
Answer
Correct option: D.
STH
D
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MCQ 1601 Mark
Which of tbe following is generally used for creating density gradient during centrifugation?
  • A
    KCI
  • B
    $MgCl _2$
  • CsCl
  • D
    NaCl
Answer
Correct option: C.
CsCl
C
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MCQ 1611 Mark
______ heavy isotope was used by Meselson and Stahl during their experiment.
  • A
    ${ }^{14} C$
  • B
    ${ }^{18} o$
  • ${ }^{15} N$
  • D
    ${ }^{32} p$
Answer
Correct option: C.
${ }^{15} N$
C
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MCQ 1621 Mark
The additional set of proteins required for packaging of chromatin at higher level are called ______.
  • A
    Histone Proteins
  • Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins
  • C
    Euchromatin
  • D
    Heterochromatin
Answer
Correct option: B.
Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins
B
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MCQ 1631 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
  • A
    The synthesis of alpha chains are controlled by two closely linked genes (HBAl and HBA2) on chromosome 16.
  • B
    Synthesis of beta chain is controlled by a single gene (HBB) on chromosome 11.
  • Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing few globin molecules, while thalassemia is a qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functional globin.
  • D
    Thalassemia is caused due to deletion or mutation of a gene which codes for the alpha (a) and beta (p) globin chains that result in the abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing few globin molecules, while thalassemia is a qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functional globin.
C
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MCQ 1641 Mark
Diploid larvae which get royal jelly as food develops into ____________ and other develops into workers (sterile females).
  • A
    queen i.e. infertile female
  • B
    drone i.e. sterile male
  • queen i.e. fertile female
  • D
    both queen i.e. infertile female and queen i.e. fertile female.
Answer
Correct option: C.
queen i.e. fertile female
C
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MCQ 1651 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option.

i. If sperm containing Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum, then diploid zygote is formed that grows into a male child.

ii. If sperm containing X chromosome fertilizes ovum, then diploid zygote is formed, that grows into a female child.

  • Both the statements are correct.
  • B
    Statement i is correct.
  • C
    Statement ii is incorrect.
  • D
    Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Both the statements are correct.
A
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MCQ 1661 Mark
What would be the progeny obtained if a haemophilic male marries a female with normal blood clotting?
  • A
    25% carrier male and 25% haemophilic females.
  • B
    All, haemophilic males and all daughters carrier for haemophilia.
  • All females carrier for haemophilia and all males with normal blood clotting.
  • D
    75% carrier male and 25% baemophilic females.
Answer
Correct option: C.
All females carrier for haemophilia and all males with normal blood clotting.
C
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MCQ 1671 Mark
Inheritance of hypertrichosis occurs directly from ____________.
  • A
    father to daughter
  • B
    mother to son
  • father to son
  • D
    mother to daughter
Answer
Correct option: C.
father to son
C
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MCQ 1681 Mark
Analyze the following statements and select the correct option.
$(i)$ Due to incomplete linkage, the parental traits are inherited in offsprings.
$(ii)$ Due to incomplete linkage, new traits occur in offsprings.
$(iii) \ X$ chromosome of Drosophila males show complete linkage.
$(iv)$ In Zea mays $-$ colour and shape of grain show complete linkage
  • Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect
  • B
    Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are correct.
  • C
    Statements $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect.
  • D
    Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect
Statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iv}$ are incorrect
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MCQ 1691 Mark
AIDS is ______.
  • A
    Anti immune deficiency syndrome
  • Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
  • C
    Auto immune deficiency syndrome
  • D
    Acquired immune disease system
Answer
Correct option: B.
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B
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MCQ 1701 Mark
What is the function of macrophages in immune defense?
  • A
    Neutralization
  • B
    Suppressing immune attack on own cells
  • C
    Release of perforins
  • Phagocytosis
Answer
Correct option: D.
Phagocytosis
D
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MCQ 1711 Mark
From which germinal layer are eyes derived?
  • A
    Ecto-endoderm
  • B
    Endoderm
  • Ectoderm
  • D
    Mesoderm
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ectoderm
C
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MCQ 1721 Mark
First meiotic division is observed in ____________.
  • A
    Spermatids
  • Primary spermatocytes
  • C
    Spermatogonia
  • D
    Secondary spermatocytes
Answer
Correct option: B.
Primary spermatocytes
B
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MCQ 1731 Mark
Identify the proper order of spermatogenesis and choose the correct option.
  • A
    Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
  • B
    Spermatogonia, Spennatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
  • C
    Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
  • Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
Answer
Correct option: D.
Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
D
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MCQ 1741 Mark
Which of the following correctly describes the rete testis?
  • It is formed when seminiferous tubules unite posteriorly.
  • B
    It is a network of tubules formed by union of vas deferens and seminal vesicle.
  • C
    They are accessory sex glands.
  • D
    They are tubules from which vasa deferentia arise.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It is formed when seminiferous tubules unite posteriorly.
A
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MCQ 1751 Mark
Identify the term that correctly describes the transfer of pollen grains through wind.
  • A
    Entomophily
  • B
    Ornithophily
  • C
    Hydrophily
  • Anemophily
Answer
Correct option: D.
Anemophily
D
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MCQ 1761 Mark
______ are abiotic agents of pollination.
  • A
    both (B) and (C)
  • Wind, water
  • C
    insects, birds
  • D
    Bees, bats
Answer
Correct option: B.
Wind, water
B
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MCQ 1771 Mark
Which of the following is important for self-pollination?
  • A
    Dioecious plants
  • Bisexual flowers
  • C
    Dichogamy
  • D
    Self-sterility
Answer
Correct option: B.
Bisexual flowers
B
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MCQ 1781 Mark
During which of the following steps does extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occur?
  • A
    Simultaneously with first cleavage
  • B
    After fertilization
  • After entry of sperm but before fertilization
  • D
    Before entry of sperm into ovum
Answer
Correct option: C.
After entry of sperm but before fertilization
C
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MCQ 1791 Mark
Identify the function/s of integuments.
  • Both (A) and (B)
  • B
    After fertilization converted into seed coats
  • C
    Protection to nucellus and embryo sac
  • D
    Providing nutrition to the embryo sac
Answer
Correct option: A.
Both (A) and (B)
A
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MCQ 1801 Mark
In which of the following manner the arrangement of megaspores in a tetrad is observed in angiosperms?
  • Linear
  • B
    lsobilateral
  • C
    Decussate
  • D
    Tetrahedral
Answer
Correct option: A.
Linear
A
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MCQ 1811 Mark
If a person is sweating and does not drink enough water, the concentration of urine is likely to be ____________ mOsm/L.
  • A
    100
  • B
    50
  • C
    300
  • 1200
Answer
Correct option: D.
1200
D
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MCQ 1821 Mark
Glucose is reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate mainly in the ____________.
  • proximal convoluted tubule
  • B
    loop of Henle
  • C
    collecting tube
  • D
    distal convoluted tubule
Answer
Correct option: A.
proximal convoluted tubule
A
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MCQ 1831 Mark
The capillaries of the glomerulus reunite to form _______ which leaves the Bowman's capsule.
  • A
    afferent arteriole
  • B
    venal vein
  • efferent arteriole
  • D
    afferent vein
Answer
Correct option: C.
efferent arteriole
C
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MCQ 1841 Mark
In order to carry out excretion, the liver of birds synthesize ____________.
  • A
    ammonia from uric acid
  • uric acid from ammonia
  • C
    urea from ammonia
  • D
    ammonia from urea
Answer
Correct option: B.
uric acid from ammonia
B
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MCQ 1851 Mark
Osmoregulation maintains the osmolarity of blood at about ______.
  • A
    500 mOsm/L
  • 300 mOsm/L
  • C
    1000 mOsm/L
  • D
    100 mOsm/L
Answer
Correct option: B.
300 mOsm/L
B
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MCQ 1861 Mark
Match the enzymes of Column-l with the functions of Column-II. Choose the correct option.
Column-l Column-II
i. Enterokinase a. Absent in adults
ii. Rennin b. Digests carbohydrates
iii. Pancreatic Amylase c. Converts trypsinogen to trypsin
iv. Lipase d. Hydrolyze fat molecules into fatty acids monoglycerides
  • i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
  • B
    i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
  • C
    i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
  • D
    i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c
Answer
Correct option: A.
i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
A
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MCQ 1871 Mark
Identify the enzyme responsible for conversion of starch to maltose.
  • A
    Lipase
  • B
    Sucrase
  • Amylase
  • D
    Lactase
Answer
Correct option: C.
Amylase
C
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MCQ 1891 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
  • A
    Digestion of starch begins in the mouth.
  • B
    Lipids are absorbed in the lacteals.
  • About 90% of absorption takes place in the large intestine.
  • D
    Digestion of proteins mainly takes place in the stomach.
Answer
Correct option: C.
About 90% of absorption takes place in the large intestine.
C
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MCQ 1901 Mark
Appendix is a vestigial organ in humans and functional in herbivorous animals for the digestion of ____________.
  • A
    lipids
  • proteins
  • C
    carbohydrates
  • D
    cellulose
Answer
Correct option: B.
proteins
B
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MCQ 1911 Mark
______ is used for conversion of 3-PGA to 2-PGA in glycolysis.
  • Phosphoglycerate mutase
  • B
    Enolase
  • C
    Pyruvate dehydrogenase
  • D
    Hexokinase
Answer
Correct option: A.
Phosphoglycerate mutase
A
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MCQ 1921 Mark
Glycolysis is the source of energy production in ______.
  • A
    Renal medulla
  • All oftbe above
  • C
    Erythrocytes
  • D
    Sperm
Answer
Correct option: B.
All oftbe above
B
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MCQ 1931 Mark
Identify the reasons due to which less energy is produced during anaerobic respiration than in aerobic respiration.
$(i)$ Incomplete breakdown of the respiratory substrate.
$(ii) \ \text{NADH} _2$ does not produce $\text{ATP},$ as electron transport is absent.
$(iii)$ Glycolysis does not occur during anaerobic respiration.
  • $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$
  • B
    $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$
  • C
    $\text{i}$
  • D
    $\text{ii}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$
$\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$
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MCQ 1941 Mark
______ refers to the physical process by which gaseous exchange takes place between the atmosphere and the lungs.
  • A
    Internal respiration
  • B
    Cellular respiration
  • Breathing
  • D
    Extracellular respiration
Answer
Correct option: C.
Breathing
C
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MCQ 1951 Mark
Where does the oxidative phosphorylation occur?
  • A
    Cytoplasm
  • B
    Mitochondrial matrix
  • C
    Outer mitochondrial membrane
  • Inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer
Correct option: D.
Inner mitochondrial membrane
D
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MCQ 1961 Mark
Maltose - X + Y, Identify X and Y in the presence of the enzyme maltase.
  • 2 molecules of glucose
  • B
    glucose and fructose
  • C
    glucose and galactose
  • D
    2 molecules of fructose
Answer
Correct option: A.
2 molecules of glucose
A
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MCQ 1971 Mark
In which of the following RNA is genetic material?
  • A
    Cyanobacteria
  • B
    Fungi
  • C
    Bacteria
  • Plant viruses
Answer
Correct option: D.
Plant viruses
D
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MCQ 1981 Mark
Identify the option that correctly describes the amphoteric nature of proteins.
  • A
    Proteins can act as only bases.
  • B
    Proteins only show presence of non-polar amino acids.
  • C
    Proteins can act as only acids.
  • Proteins can act as both acids and bases.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Proteins can act as both acids and bases.
D
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MCQ 1991 Mark
____________ are esters of saturated fatty acids with long chain alcohols and ketones.
  • Waxes
  • B
    Steroids
  • C
    Carotenoids
  • D
    Histones
Answer
Correct option: A.
Waxes
A
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MCQ 2001 Mark
Chemically all living organisms have three basic types of macromolecules, which are polymers of simple subunits called ____________.
  • A
    dipeptide
  • B
    disaccharide
  • C
    nucleotides
  • monomers
Answer
Correct option: D.
monomers
D
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