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MCQ

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200 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 11 Mark
In a transistor, doping level in base is increased slightly, the collector current and base current respectively ______.
  • A
    increases slightly, decreases slightly
  • B
    decreases slightly, decreases slightly
  • decreases slightly, increases slightly
  • D
    increases slightly, increases slightly
Answer
Correct option: C.
decreases slightly, increases slightly
C
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MCQ 21 Mark
If $I _1, l _2, l _3$ are the lengths of the emitter, base and collector of a transistor, then ____________.
  • A
    $I_3<I_1<I_2$
  • B
    $I_3<I_2>I_1$
  • C
    $I_1=I_2=I_3$
  • $I_3>I_1>I_2$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$I_3>I_1>I_2$
D
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MCQ 31 Mark
A radioactive substance of half-life 69.3 days is kept in a container. The time in which 80% of the substance will disintegrate will be ______

[take ln(5) = 1.61]

  • A
    16.1 days
  • 161 days
  • C
    1.61 days
  • D
    1610 days
Answer
Correct option: B.
161 days
B
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MCQ 41 Mark
When an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit to the second orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength 'λ'. When it jumps from the fourth orbit to third orbit, the wavelength emitted by the photon will be ______.
  • `20/7lambda`
  • B
    `20/13lambda`
  • C
    `9/16lambda`
  • D
    `16/25lambda`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`20/7lambda`
A
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MCQ 51 Mark
For an electron, discrete energy levels are characterised by ____________.
  • Principal quantum number (n)
  • B
    Planck's constant (h)
  • C
    Radius (r)
  • D
    Rydberg's constant (R)
Answer
Correct option: A.
Principal quantum number (n)
A
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MCQ 61 Mark
In hydrogen spectrum, which of the following spectral series lies in ultraviolet region?
  • A
    Pfund
  • B
    Brackett
  • Lyman
  • D
    Paschen
Answer
Correct option: C.
Lyman
C
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MCQ 71 Mark
If the potential difference used to accelerate electrons is doubled, by what factor does the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons change?
  • A
    Wavelength is increased to `1/sqrt2` times
  • B
    Wavelength is increased to `1/2` times
  • C
    Wavelength is decreased to `1/3` times
  • Wavelength is decreased to `1/sqrt2` times
Answer
Correct option: D.
Wavelength is decreased to `1/sqrt2` times
D
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MCQ 81 Mark
Out of the following statements which one is correct?
  • The photocurrent increases with intensity of incident light
  • B
    The current in photocell increases with increasing frequency
  • C
    The photocurrent is proportional to the applied voltage
  • D
    The stopping potential increases with increase in intensity of incident light
Answer
Correct option: A.
The photocurrent increases with intensity of incident light
A
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MCQ 91 Mark
Which one of the following statements ts INCORRECT for stopping potential in photoelectric emission?
  • A
    It is different for a metal exposed to light of different frequencies
  • B
    It is directly proportional to maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons
  • It is independent of the nature of metal
  • D
    It is independent of intensity of incident light
Answer
Correct option: C.
It is independent of the nature of metal
C
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MCQ 101 Mark
An a.c. source of variable frequency 'f' is connected to an LCR series circuit. Which one of the graphs represent the variation of current 'I' in the circuit with frequency 'f'?

  • Image
  • B

    Image
  • C

    Image
  • D

    Image
Answer
Correct option: A.

Image
A
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MCQ 111 Mark
A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillation of frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be ____________.
  • A
    8f
  • `"f" 2sqrt2`
  • C
    f / 2
  • D
    f / 4
Answer
Correct option: B.
`"f" 2sqrt2`
B
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MCQ 121 Mark
The oscillation in L.C. circuit is produced due to ____________.
  • A
    transfer of energy between diode and transistor
  • B
    transfer of energy between resistance and C
  • C
    transfer of resistance between L and C
  • transfer of energy between L and C
Answer
Correct option: D.
transfer of energy between L and C
D
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MCQ 131 Mark
A coil of inductance 'L' is connected to an a.c. source of emf 'E' and frequency 'f'.

The current in the coil is ____________.

  • A
    `"E"^2/(2pifL)`
  • `E/(2pifL)`
  • C
    `E/sqrt(2pifL)`
  • D
    `E/(2pifL^ 2)`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`E/(2pifL)`
B
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MCQ 141 Mark
In an induction coil, the coefficient of mutual inductance is 6 henry. If a current of 10 ampere in the primary coil is cut-off in `1/1500"s"`, the e.m.f. at the terminals of the secondary coil will be ____________.
  • A
    60 kV
  • B
    10 kV
  • C
    15 kV
  • 90 kV
Answer
Correct option: D.
90 kV
D
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MCQ 151 Mark
A coil having effective area A, is held with its plane normal to a magnetic field of induction B. The magnetic induction is quickly reduced to 25% of its initial value in 4 s. Then e.m.f. induced across the coil will be ____________.
  • A
    `(3"AB")/4`
  • B
    `"AB"/4`
  • `(3"AB")/16`
  • D
    `"AB"/2`
Answer
Correct option: C.
`(3"AB")/16`
C
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MCQ 161 Mark
The product of magnetic susceptibility (`chi`) and absolute temperature (T) is constant for a ____________.
  • paramagnetic material
  • B
    ferromagnetic material
  • C
    diamagnetic and ferromagnetic material
  • D
    diamagnetic material
Answer
Correct option: A.
paramagnetic material
A
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MCQ 171 Mark
SI Unit of Magnetization is ____________.
  • A
    `"A"^2 "m"^2`
  • B
    `"A"^2/"m"`
  • C
    `"A"/"m"^2`
  • `"A"/"m"`
Answer
Correct option: D.
`"A"/"m"`
D
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MCQ 181 Mark
Magnetic induction due to a toroid does not depend upon ______.
  • radius of a toroid.
  • B
    permeability of a free space.
  • C
    current flowing through a toroid.
  • D
    number of turns per unit length.
Answer
Correct option: A.
radius of a toroid.
A
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MCQ 191 Mark
Two current-carrying coils have radii r and 4r and have same magnetic induction at their centres. The ratio of voltage applied across them is ______.
  • 4: I
  • B
    1: 8
  • C
    1: 4
  • D
    8: 1
Answer
Correct option: A.
4: I
A
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MCQ 201 Mark
A long straight wire carries a current of $\pi$ ampere. The magnetic field due to it will be $10 x ^` 10^{\wedge}-5^`$ weber $/ m ^2$ at what distance from the wire[ $\mu_0=$ permeability of air $]$ ?
  • A
    $`5 xx 10^6 mu_0` metre$
  • B
    $`10^6/mu_0` metre$
  • $`5 xx 10^3 mu_0`metre$
  • D
    $`10^4/mu_0` metre$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$`5 xx 10^3 mu_0`metre$
C
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MCQ 211 Mark
A very high magnetic field is applied to a stationary charge. Then the charge experiences ______.
  • A
    a force in the direction of magnetic field
  • B
    a force in an arbitrary direction
  • C
    a force perpendicular to the magnetic field.
  • no force
Answer
Correct option: D.
no force
D
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MCQ 221 Mark
When a galvanometer of resistance G is converted to an ammeter of range l A, then the current passing through S is ____________.
  • $I_S={ }^{\prime}(G /(G+S))^{\prime} I$
  • B
    $I_S=^{\prime}((S I+G) / G)^{\prime}$
  • C
    $I_S=^{\prime}((S I+G) / S)^{\prime}$
  • D
    $I_S={ }^{\prime}(S /(S+G))^{\prime} I$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$I_S={ }^{\prime}(G /(G+S))^{\prime} I$
A
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MCQ 231 Mark
The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm, and the e.m.f of its standard cell is E volt. It is employed to measure the e.m.f of a battery whose internal resistance is 0.5 `Omega` If the balance point is obtained at `l`= 30 cm from the positive end, the e.m.f of the battery is ____________.

where 'i' is the current in the potentiometer

  • A
    `(30"E")/((100 - 0.5))`
  • `(30"E")/100`
  • C
    `(30("E" - 0.5"i"))/100`
  • D
    `(30"E")/100.5`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`(30"E")/100`
B
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MCQ 241 Mark
The magnitude and direction of the current in the circuit shown will be ______ 
Image
  • A
    `2/3` A from a to b through e.
  • B
    3 A from b to a through e.
  • C
    `10/3` A from a to b through e.
  • `2/3` A from b to a through e.
Answer
Correct option: D.
`2/3` A from b to a through e.
D
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MCQ 251 Mark
Capacity of a parallel plate capacitor with a medium of dielectric constant 8 is 12 µF. If the medium is removed, then capacity of the capacitor would be ____________.
  • A
    18 µF
  • 1.5 µF
  • C
    0.67 µF
  • D
    9.6 µF
Answer
Correct option: B.
1.5 µF
B
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MCQ 261 Mark
A parallel beam of monochromatic light falls normally on a single narrow slit. The angular width of the central maximum in the resulting diffraction pattern ______
  • decreases with the increase of slitwidth
  • B
    increase with the increase of slitwidth
  • C
    decreases with the decrease of slitwidth
  • D
    may increase or decrease
Answer
Correct option: A.
decreases with the increase of slitwidth
A
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MCQ 271 Mark
In a diffraction pattern, width of a fringe ____________.
  • A
    is directly proportional to the square of slit width
  • B
    varies directly as slit width
  • varies inversely as slit width
  • D
    does not depend on slit width
Answer
Correct option: C.
varies inversely as slit width
C
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MCQ 281 Mark
Waves from two coherent sources of light having an intensity ratio $I_1: I_2$ equal to ' $x$ ' interfere. Then in the interference pattern obtained on the screen, the value of $\left(I_{\max }-I_{\min }\right) /\left(I_{\max }+I_{\min }\right)$ is .................
  • `sqrtx"/"x + 1`
  • B
    `2sqrtx"/"x + 1`
  • C
    `sqrtx"/"x - 1`
  • D
    `2sqrtx"/"x - 1`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`sqrtx"/"x + 1`
A
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MCQ 291 Mark
Light entering an air glass (µ = 1.5) boundary is partly reflected and partly refracted. If the incident and reflected rays are at right angles to each other, the angle of refraction r is given by ____________.
  • A
    sin r = `sqrt((2/3)`
  • sin r = `sqrt2/3`
  • C
    sin r = `2/13`
  • D
    sin r = `2/sqrt3`
Answer
Correct option: B.
sin r = `sqrt2/3`
B
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MCQ 301 Mark
Two identical wires are vibrating in unison. If the tension in one of the wires is increased by 2%, five beats are produced per second by the two vibrating wires. The initial frequency of each wire is ______

`(sqrt(1 . 0.2) ≑ 1 . 0.1)`

  • A
    400 Hz
  • 500 Hz
  • C
    1000 Hz
  • D
    200 Hz
Answer
Correct option: B.
500 Hz
B
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MCQ 311 Mark
A uniform rope of mass 6 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass 2 kg is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 0.06 m is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse, when it reaches the top is ______. (in m)
  • A
    0.06
  • 0.12
  • C
    0.03
  • D
    0.24
Answer
Correct option: B.
0.12
B
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MCQ 321 Mark
If a pendulum which gives correct time beats second on ground at a certain place is moved to the top of a tower 320 m high, then the loss of time of the pendulum clock in one day, in second, is ______.
  • A
    2.16s
  • B
    1.08 s
  • C
    0.54 s
  • 8.64 s
Answer
Correct option: D.
8.64 s
D
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MCQ 331 Mark
The length of the second's pendulum is decreased by 0.3 cm when it is shifted from place $A$ to place $B$. If the acceleration due to gravity at place A is $981 cm / s ^2$, the acceleration due to gravity at place B is ........... (Take $\pi^2=10$ )
  • A
    $975 cm / s ^2$
  • $978 cm / s ^2$
  • C
    $984 cm / s ^2$
  • D
    $981 cm / s ^2$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$978 cm / s ^2$
B
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MCQ 341 Mark
When gas is m thermal equilibrium, its molecules have ______
  • A
    zero energy.
  • certain constant energy.
  • C
    different energies which remain constant.
  • D
    the same energy.
Answer
Correct option: B.
certain constant energy.
B
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MCQ 351 Mark
At temperature T, the emissive power and absorption power of a body for certain wavelength are `"e"_lambda` and `"a"_lambda` respectively, then ____________.
  • `"e"_lambda = "a"_lambda`
  • B
    `"e"_lambda > "a"_lambda`
  • C
    there will not be any definite relation between `"e"_lambda` and `"a"_lambda`
  • D
    `"e"_lambda < "a"_lambda`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`"e"_lambda = "a"_lambda`
A
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MCQ 361 Mark
Assuming the expression for the pressure exerted by the gas on the wall of the container, it can be shown that pressure is ______.
  • A
    `[1/3]^"rd"` kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
  • `[2/3]^"rd"` kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
  • C
    `[3/4]^"th"` kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
  • D
    `3/2xx` kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
Answer
Correct option: B.
`[2/3]^"rd"` kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
B
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MCQ 371 Mark
In a capillary rise experiment, the water level rises to a height of 5 cm. If the same capillary tube is placed in water such that only 3 cm of the tube projects outside the water level, then ____________.
  • A
    water will begin to overflow through the capillary
  • B
    angle of contact decreases
  • angle of contact increases
  • D
    the meniscus completely vanishes
Answer
Correct option: C.
angle of contact increases
C
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MCQ 381 Mark
Assertion: If work done in increasing the size of a soap film from $10 cm \times 4 cm$ to $10 cm \times 8 cm$ is $2 \times 10^{-4} J$, then the surface tension is $5 \times 10^{-4} N m ^{-1}$.
  • A
    Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
  • Assertion is False but, Reason is True.
  • C
    Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion.
  • D
    Assertion is True, Reason is False.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Assertion is False but, Reason is True.
B
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MCQ 391 Mark
If E, M and P are the kinetic energy, mass and linear momentum of a particle respectively, which of the following relations represents the angular momentum L of the particle when the particle rotates in a circle of radius R?
  • A
    $L^2=2 M R$
  • B
    $L=\operatorname{sqrt}\left(2^{\prime \prime} M E^{\prime \prime}\right)^{\circ}$
  • $L^2=2 M R^2 E$
  • D
    $L=P^2 M E$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$L^2=2 M R^2 E$
C
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MCQ 401 Mark
An engine requires 5 seconds to go from a speed of 600 r.p.m. to 1200 r.p.m. How many revolutions does it make in this period?
  • 75 revolutions
  • B
    7500 revolutions
  • C
    750 revolutions
  • D
    7.5 revolutions
Answer
Correct option: A.
75 revolutions
A
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MCQ 411 Mark
Electronic configuration of germanium is 2, 8, 18 and 4. To make it extrinsic semiconductor small quantity of antimony is added. The correct statement is ____________.
  • A
    The material obtained will be p-type germanium
  • B
    The material obtained will be n-type germanium which bas less electrons than holes at room temperature
  • C
    The material obtained will be n-type germanium in which electrons and holes are equal in number
  • The material obtained will be n-type germanium which has more electrons than holes at room temperature
Answer
Correct option: D.
The material obtained will be n-type germanium which has more electrons than holes at room temperature
D
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MCQ 421 Mark
A total charge Q is broken in two parts $Q_1$ and $Q_2$ and they are placed at a distance R from each other. The maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, when ____________.
  • A
    $`"Q"_2 = "Q"/4, "Q"_1 = "Q" - (2"Q")/"R"`$
  • $`"Q"_1 = "Q"/2, "Q"_2 = "Q"/2`$
  • C
    $`"Q"_2 = "Q"/4, "Q"_1 = (3"Q")/4`$
  • D
    $`"Q"_2 = "Q"/"R", "Q"_1 = "Q" - "Q"/"R"`$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$`"Q"_1 = "Q"/2, "Q"_2 = "Q"/2`$
B
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MCQ 431 Mark
The equiconvex lens has focal length 'f'. If it is cut perpendicular to the principal axis passing through optical centre. then focal length of each half will be ____________.
  • A
    $3 / 4^{\text {th }}$ of initial
  • B
    same as that of initial
  • twice that of initial
  • D
    half of initial
Answer
Correct option: C.
twice that of initial
C
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MCQ 441 Mark
Three identical charges are placed on three vertices of a square. If the force acting between $q_1$ and $q_2$ is $F_{12}$ and between $q_1$ and $q_3$ is $f_{13}$ then `"F"_13/"F"_12` = ____________.
  • `1/2`
  • B
    `1/sqrt2`
  • C
    `sqrt2`
  • D
    2
Answer
Correct option: A.
`1/2`
A
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MCQ 451 Mark
A metal sphere 10.01 cm in diameter is placed on a brass ring of internal diameter 10 cm and at the same temperature of 12° C. The temperature up to which they should be heated together so that the metal sphere just passes through the ring is `[alpha_"metal"= 12 xx 10^-6//°"C" and alpha_"brass" =18 xx 10^-6//°"C"]` ____________.
  • A
    197° C
  • B
    191° C
  • C
    167° C
  • 179° C
Answer
Correct option: D.
179° C
D
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MCQ 461 Mark
Two particles of equal mass go around a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational force of attraction. The speed of each particle is (M = mass of the particle) ____________.
  • A
    `sqrt("GM"/R)`
  • `1/2 sqrt("GM"/R)`
  • C
    `1/3 sqrt("GM"/R)`
  • D
    `1/4 sqrt("GM"/R)`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`1/2 sqrt("GM"/R)`
B
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MCQ 471 Mark
A body of mass 'M' moving with velocity 'V' explodes into two equal parts. If one part comes to rest and the other part moves with velocity '$v_0$'. What would be the value of '''$v_0$'?
  • A
    V
  • B
    `V/sqrt2`
  • 2V
  • D
    4V
Answer
Correct option: C.
2V
C
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MCQ 481 Mark
A force of F = `("x"/2 + 15) "N"` acts on a particle. If x 2 is in metre, calculate the work done by the force during the displacement of the particle from x = 0 to x = 4 m
  • 64 J
  • B
    80 J
  • C
    128 J
  • D
    52 J
Answer
Correct option: A.
64 J
A
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MCQ 491 Mark
The angular speed of the minute hand of a clock in degrees per second is ______.
  • 0.1
  • B
    10
  • C
    0.1
  • D
    1
Answer
Correct option: A.
0.1
A
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MCQ 501 Mark
A vehicle moving with 15 km/hr comes to rest by covering 5m distance by applying brakes. If the same vehicle moves at 45 km/hr, then by applying brakes, it will come to rest by covering a distance ______.
  • A
    60 m
  • B
    15 m
  • 45 m
  • D
    30 m
Answer
Correct option: C.
45 m
C
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MCQ 511 Mark
$\ce{A ->[HCN] B ->[Dil.HCl/\Delta] 2-Hydroxy-3, 3-dimethylbutanoic acid}$

Reactant 'A' is ____________.

  • 2, 2-dimethylpropanal
  • B
    2, 3-dimethylbutanal
  • C
    3-methylbutanal
  • D
    2-methylpropanal
Answer
Correct option: A.
2, 2-dimethylpropanal
A
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MCQ 521 Mark
Which among the following polymers is obtained from $CH _2= CH - CN$ by polymerisation?
  • A
    Teflon
  • B
    PVC
  • C
    Neoprene
  • Orlon
Answer
Correct option: D.
Orlon
D
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MCQ 531 Mark
Which among the following polymer is used to make crockeries?
  • A
    HDPE
  • B
    Buna-N
  • Melamine
  • D
    Buna-S
Answer
Correct option: C.
Melamine
C
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MCQ 541 Mark
Nucleotide differs from a nucleoside as it has ______
  • A
    nitrogenous base
  • B
    phosphate group and a sugar molecule
  • phosphate group
  • D
    sugar molecule
Answer
Correct option: C.
phosphate group
C
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MCQ 551 Mark
Which among the following sugars does not reduce Tollen's reagent?
  • Sucrose
  • B
    Lactose
  • C
    Ribose
  • D
    Maltose
Answer
Correct option: A.
Sucrose
A
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MCQ 561 Mark
$\ce{CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - Br ->[Na][dry ether] A ->[Cl2] B}$

Identify the product B in the above reaction.

  • A
    Chloropentane
  • B
    Chloropropane
  • Chlorohexane
  • D
    Chloroheptane
Answer
Correct option: C.
Chlorohexane
C
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MCQ 571 Mark
$\ce{Dimethylamine + Benzoyl chloride ->[Pyridine] ?}$

Product formed is:

  • A
    N-phenylbenzamide
  • B
    N, N-dimethylacetamide
  • N, N-dimethylbenzamide
  • D
    N-methylbenzamide
Answer
Correct option: C.
N, N-dimethylbenzamide
C
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MCQ 581 Mark
Which among the following has the highest boiling point?
  • $n - C _4 H _9 NH _2$
  • B
    $C _2 H _5 N\left( CH _3\right)_2$
  • C
    $\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH$
  • D
    $C _2 H _5 CH \left( CH _3\right)_2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$n - C _4 H _9 NH _2$
A
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MCQ 601 Mark
Which of the following compounds is obtained when ethanoic anhydride is treated with water?
  • Ethanoic acid
  • B
    Ethanal
  • C
    Ethyl ethanoate
  • D
    Ethanol
Answer
Correct option: A.
Ethanoic acid
A
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MCQ 611 Mark
In the reaction,

$\ce{CH3COOH ->[SOCl2] X ->[Sodium salt of carboxylic acid] Y}$.

The compound Y was found to be a mixed acid anhydride. Thus, the sodium salt of carboxylic acid used CANNOT be ____________.

  • A
    sodium valerate
  • sodium acetate
  • C
    sodium propionate
  • D
    sodium butyrate
Answer
Correct option: B.
sodium acetate
B
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MCQ 621 Mark
Ethyl methyl ketone can be reduced to n-butane by which of the following reactions?
  • A
    catalytic hydrogenation
  • B
    $Na / Hg , H _2 O$
  • Wolff-Kishner reduction
  • D
    Stephen reaction
Answer
Correct option: C.
Wolff-Kishner reduction
C
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MCQ 631 Mark
Which of the following compounds does NOT contain $\begin{array}{cc}\backslash\phantom{.......}\\\ce{C = O}\\
/\phantom{.......}\\\end{array}$ group?
  • A
    Amide
  • B
    Acyl halide
  • C
    Ester
  • Ether
Answer
Correct option: D.
Ether
D
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MCQ 641 Mark
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for ethers?
  • A
    Lower ethers are highly volatile and highly inflammable substances.
  • B
    Ethers have a small net dipole moment.
  • Dimethyl ether and ethyl methyl ether are liquids.
  • D
    Boiling point of ether is higher than alkane of similar mass.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Dimethyl ether and ethyl methyl ether are liquids.
C
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MCQ 651 Mark
Which following reagent is used to obtain alkene from alcohol?
  • A
    Acidic $KMnO _4$
  • B
    $LiAlH _4$
  • C
    $Na - Hg / H _2 O$
  • $P _2 O _5$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$P _2 O _5$
D
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MCQ 661 Mark
Ethyl bromide undergoes the following reaction:$\ce{\underset{Ethyl bromide}{C2H5Br} + \underset{(aq.)}{KOH} ->[\Delta] \underset{Ethyl alcohol}{C2H5OH} + KBr}$
Which of the following is a WRONG statement?
  • A
    There is inversion of configuration.
  • The nucleophile attacks the carbon undergoing substitution from the same side as that of the leaving group.
  • C
    $\text { Rate }= k \left[ C _2 H _5 Br \right]\left[ OH ^{-}\right] \text {. }$
  • D
    $\text { The reaction follows } S _{ N } 2 \text { mechanism. }$
Answer
Correct option: B.
The nucleophile attacks the carbon undergoing substitution from the same side as that of the leaving group.
B
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MCQ 671 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
  • A
    The acid strength of the halogen oxoacids increases with the increasing oxidation state of halogen.
  • B
    Oxygen has two allotropes $O _2$ and $O _3$ (ozone).
  • C
    All hydrides except $H _2 O$ possess reducing property which increases in the order $H _2 S< H _2 Se < H _2 Te$.
  • Thermal stability of hydrogen halides increases in the order $HF < HCl < HBr < HI$.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Thermal stability of hydrogen halides increases in the order $HF < HCl < HBr < HI$.
D
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MCQ 681 Mark
Identify 'B' in the following series of reactions.

$\ce{Ethanol ->[NaBr][H2SO4, \Delta] A ->[Mg][Dry ether] B}$

  • A
    Ethyl bromide
  • Ethyl magnesium bromide
  • C
    Sodium ethoxide
  • D
    Ethene
Answer
Correct option: B.
Ethyl magnesium bromide
B
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MCQ 691 Mark
The formula of two complexes X and Y of chromium are given below:

$\ce{\underset{(X)}{[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3}}$ and $\ce{\underset{(Y)}{[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O}}$

X and Y are examples of ____________ isomers.

  • solvate
  • B
    ionization
  • C
    linkage
  • D
    coordination
Answer
Correct option: A.
solvate
A
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MCQ 701 Mark
As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex $\left[ Co \left( H _2 O \right)_3\left( NH _3\right)_3\right] Cl _3$ is ____________.
  • A
    Triamminetriaquacobalt (II) chloride
  • Triamminetriaquacobalt (III) chloride
  • C
    Triaquatriamminecobalt (II) chloride
  • D
    Triaquatriamminecobalt (III) chloride
Answer
Correct option: B.
Triamminetriaquacobalt (III) chloride
B
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MCQ 711 Mark
Which among the following complexes is a heteroleptic and cationic in nature?
  • A
    $K _4\left[ Fe ( CN )_6\right]$
  • ${\left[ Co \left( NH _3\right)_4 Cl _2\right] Cl }$
  • C
    ${\left[ Pt \left( NH _3\right)_2 Cl \right]}$
  • D
    ${\left[ Ni ( CO )_4\right]}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
${\left[ Co \left( NH _3\right)_4 Cl _2\right] Cl }$
B
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MCQ 721 Mark
Which of the following properties is NOT of actinoids?
  • Some of the ions of these are fairly coloured.
  • B
    Binding energy of 5f orbitals is lower than 4f orbitals.
  • C
    Hydroxides of these are more basic in nature than lanthanoids.
  • D
    These have greater tendency to form complexes.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Some of the ions of these are fairly coloured.
A
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MCQ 731 Mark
When lanthanoids (Ln) are heated to about 2800 K with carbon, the carbides with general formula ____________ are obtained.
  • A
    LnC
  • B
    $\operatorname{LnC}_3$
  • $\operatorname{LnC}_2$
  • D
    $\operatorname{Ln}_3 C_2$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\operatorname{LnC}_2$
C
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MCQ 741 Mark
Which among the following gases is used to produce and sustain powerful super conducting magnets for NMR and MRI systems?
  • A
    Kr
  • B
    Ne
  • C
    Ar
  • He
Answer
Correct option: D.
He
D
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MCQ 751 Mark
The halide that undergoes $sp ^3 d$ hybridisation is ____________.
  • A
    $SCl _2$
  • $TeF _4$ 
  • C
    $SeF _6$
  • D
    $SeCl _2$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$TeF _4$ 
B
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MCQ 761 Mark
How many ions per molecule are produced in the solution when carnallite is dissolved in excess of water?
  • A
    10
  • 5
  • C
    4
  • D
    6
Answer
Correct option: B.
5
B
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MCQ 771 Mark
____________ is used as a catalyst for the following reaction:$\ce{CO + \underset{\text{(Steam)}}{H2O} ⇌ CO2 + H2}$
  • A
    $MnO_2$
  • B
    Mo/Fe
  • C
    Ni
  • Fe-Cr
Answer
Correct option: D.
Fe-Cr
D
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MCQ 781 Mark
The rate constant of a first order reaction is $3 \times 10^{-6}$ per s . If the initial concentration is $0.10 mol dm ^{-3}$, the initial rate of reaction is ____________.
  • A
    $3 \times 10^{-8} mol dm ^{-3} s^{-1}$
  • B
    $3 \times 10^{-5} mol dm ^{-3} s^{-1}$
  • C
    $3 \times 10^{-6} mol dm ^{-3} s^{-1}$
  • $3 \times 10^{-7} mol dm ^{-3} s^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$3 \times 10^{-7} mol dm ^{-3} s^{-1}$
D
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MCQ 791 Mark
If $[A]$ is the concentration of $A$ at any time $t$ and $[A]_0$ is the concentration at $t=0$, then for the $1^{\text {st }}$ order reaction, the rate equation can be written as ____________.
  • A
    $k = `2.303/"t" log_10 (["A"]_0 - ["A"])/(["A"]_0)`$
  • $[ A ]=[ A ]_0 e ^{- kt }$
  • C
    $k={ }^2 2.303 / " t^{\prime \prime} \log _{-} 10\left(\left[" A^{\prime \prime}\right]\right) /\left([" A "] \_0\right)^{\prime}$
  • D
    $k=2.303 / " t " \log _{-} 10\left([" A "] \_0\right) /\left[\left[" A^{\prime \prime}\right] \_0-[" A "]\right){ }_{-}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$[ A ]=[ A ]_0 e ^{- kt }$
B
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MCQ 801 Mark
Consider the cell $\ce{Al | Al^{3+} (1 M) || Sn^{2+} (1 M) | Sn}$, $\ce{E^0_{Al}}$ = −1.66 V; $\ce{E^0_{Fe}}$ = $-0.136 V, \Delta G^0$ for the above cell is ____________.
  • A
    −147 kJ
  • B
    −441 kJ
  • −882 kJ
  • D
    −588 kJ
Answer
Correct option: C.
−882 kJ
C
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MCQ 811 Mark
If one mole electrons is passed through the solutions of $CrCl _3, AgNO _3$ and $NiSO _4$, in what ratio $Cr , Ag$ and Ni will be deposited at the electrodes?
  • A
    1 : 2 : 3
  • 2 : 6 : 3
  • C
    3 : 6 : 2
  • D
    3 : 2 : 1
Answer
Correct option: B.
2 : 6 : 3
B
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MCQ 821 Mark
A conductivity cell having cell constant $8.76 cm^{-1}$, placed in 0.01 M solution of an electrolyte offered a resistance of 1000 ohms. What is the specific conductance of electrolytes?
  • $8.76 \times 10^{-3} ohm ^{-1} cm^{-1}$
  • B
    $8.76 \times 10^{-2} ohm ^{-1} cm^{-1}$
  • C
    $8.76 \times 10^{-4} ohm ^{-1} cm^{-1}$
  • D
    $8.76 \times 10^4 ohm ^{-1} cm^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$8.76 \times 10^{-3} ohm ^{-1} cm^{-1}$
A
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MCQ 831 Mark
For a reaction $\Delta H =-30 kJ$ and $\Delta S =-45 JK ^{-1}$, at what temperature reaction changes from spontaneous to non- spontaneous?
  • 675.0 K
  • B
    375.0 K
  • C
    777.0 K
  • D
    666.6 K
Answer
Correct option: A.
675.0 K
A
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MCQ 841 Mark
The standard heats of formation in $kcal mol ^{-1}$ of $NO _{2(g)}$ and $N _2 O _{4(g)}$ are 8.0 and 2.0 respectively. The heat of dimerization of $NO _2$ in kcal is ____________.$\ce{2NO2_{(g)} ⇌ N2O4_{(g)}}$
  • A
    10.0
  • −14.0
  • C
    −12.0
  • D
    −6.0
Answer
Correct option: B.
−14.0
B
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MCQ 851 Mark
Concentration of the $C _2 O _{4( aq )}^{-}$ions in a saturated solution of $Ag _2 C _2 O _4$ is $1.1 \times 10^{-4} mol L ^{-1}$. Solubility product of $Ag _2 C _2 O _4$ is............
  • $5.32 \times 10^{-12}$
  • B
    $1.33 \times 10^{-8}$
  • C
    $4.84 \times 10^{-11}$
  • D
    $4.4 \times 10^{-8}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$5.32 \times 10^{-12}$
A
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MCQ 861 Mark
The pH of a monoacidic weak base is 11.5. The concentration of $OH ^{-}$ions in this solution is ____________ M.
  • A
    $10^{-4.5}$
  • B
    $10^{-11.5}$
  • $10^{-2.5}$
  • D
    $10^{-7.0}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$10^{-2.5}$
C
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MCQ 871 Mark
Two solutions A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane. If the solvent flows from A to B, then ____________.
  • A is less concentrated than B
  • B
    A is more concentrated than B
  • C
    both A and B have the same concentration
  • D
    the pressure should be applied on the side of solution A to prevent the flow of solvent
Answer
Correct option: A.
A is less concentrated than B
A
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MCQ 881 Mark
If mole fraction of the solvent in a solution decreases, then ____________.
  • A
    boiling point decreases
  • B
    osmotic pressure decreases
  • freezing point decreases
  • D
    vapour pressure of solution increases
Answer
Correct option: C.
freezing point decreases
C
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MCQ 891 Mark
Which of the following pair will have equal magnetic moment value in BM?
  • A
    $Ti ^{2+} \text { and } V ^{2+}$
  • $Mn ^{2+} \text { and } Fe ^{3+}$
  • C
    $Cr ^{3+} \text { and } Mn ^{2+}$
  • D
    $V ^{2+} \text { and } Sc ^{3+}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$Mn ^{2+} \text { and } Fe ^{3+}$
B
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MCQ 901 Mark
The percentage of vacant space of bcc unit cell is ____________.
  • A
    74%
  • 32%
  • C
    52%
  • D
    68%
Answer
Correct option: B.
32%
B
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MCQ 911 Mark
A compound with molecular formula $C _4 H _4 O$ has all the four carbon atom and the oxygen atom in the ring. It also has two carbon-carbon double bonds. The compound is ____________.
  • hetero-aromatic
  • B
    homocyclic and aromatic
  • C
    alicyclic
  • D
    hetero-alicyclic
Answer
Correct option: A.
hetero-aromatic
A
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MCQ 921 Mark
$\ce{CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3}$ in IUPAC is known as ____________.
  • A
    3-Ethoxypropane
  • 1-Ethoxypropane
  • C
    3-Propoxyethane
  • D
    1-Propoxyethane
Answer
Correct option: B.
1-Ethoxypropane
B
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MCQ 931 Mark
The reagent used to confirm the presence of five hydroxyl groups in glucose is ____________.
  • A
    Bromine water
  • B
    Fehling's reagent
  • Acetic anhydride
  • D
    Hot HI
Answer
Correct option: C.
Acetic anhydride
C
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MCQ 941 Mark
Tyndall effect is useful ______.
  • A
    for coagulation of colloids
  • to count number of particles in colloidal dispersions
  • C
    for stability of colloids
  • D
    to determine charge on colloidal particles
Answer
Correct option: B.
to count number of particles in colloidal dispersions
B
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MCQ 951 Mark
At a constant pressure, an ideal gas has a volume of $200 cm^3$ at $25^{\circ} C$. If the gas is cooled to $-3^{\circ} C$, what will be the final volume of a gas?
  • $181 cm^3$
  • B
    $221 cm^3$
  • C
    $245 cm^3$
  • D
    $24 cm^3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$181 cm^3$
A
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MCQ 961 Mark
Which among the following elements has highest ionisation enthalpy and bears a diagonal relationship with aluminium?
  • Beryllium
  • B
    Lithium
  • C
    Calcium
  • D
    Magnesium
Answer
Correct option: A.
Beryllium
A
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MCQ 971 Mark
The oxidation state of phosphorous in $Mg _2 P _2 O _7$ is ______.
  • A
    + 2
  • B
    - 3
  • C
    + 3
  • + 5
Answer
Correct option: D.
+ 5
D
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MCQ 981 Mark
The $C - C$ sigma bond in $C _2 H _2$ is formed by .........overlap.
  • A
    $s p^2-s p^2$
  • $s p-s p^3$
  • C
    $s p-s p^2$
  • D
    $s p^2-s p^3$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$s p-s p^3$
B
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MCQ 991 Mark
The three electrons have the following set of quantum numbers:

X = 6, 1, −1, `+1/2`

Y = 6, 0, 0, `+1/2`

Z = 5, 1, 0, `+1/2`

Identify the CORRECT statement.

  • A
    Y has greater energy than X.
  • B
    Z has greater energy than X and Y.
  • C
    Y and Z have same energy.
  • X has greater energy than Y and Z.
Answer
Correct option: D.
X has greater energy than Y and Z.
D
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MCQ 1001 Mark
Which of the following is an extensive property?
  • A
    Density
  • B
    Boiling point
  • C
    Viscosity
  • Volume
Answer
Correct option: D.
Volume
D
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MCQ 1011 Mark
Acronym for IUCN is ____________.
  • A
    International Union for Conservation of Natural habitat
  • International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
  • C
    International Union for Conservation of Natural Resources
  • D
    International Union for Conservation of Nature
Answer
Correct option: B.
International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
B
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MCQ 1021 Mark
Select the correct alternative for x and y.
Image
  • A
    $x \rightarrow S=A Z^C, y \rightarrow \log Z A=\log C+\log S$
  • B
    $x \rightarrow S=C A^z, y \rightarrow \log S=\log C+A \log Z$
  • $x \rightarrow S=C A^z, y \rightarrow \log S=\log C+Z \log A$
  • D
    $x \rightarrow S=C Z^A, y \rightarrow \log C=\log S+Z \log A$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$x \rightarrow S=C A^z, y \rightarrow \log S=\log C+Z \log A$
C
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MCQ 1031 Mark
Latitudinal and altitudinal gradient is shown by which of the following habitat(s)?
  • All of these
  • B
    Arid
  • C
    Semiarid
  • D
    Aquatic
Answer
Correct option: A.
All of these
A
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MCQ 1041 Mark
Within a given geographical area which of the following diversity is related to different types of habitats/ecosystems?
  • A
    Genetic
  • Ecological
  • C
    Community
  • D
    Species
Answer
Correct option: B.
Ecological
B
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MCQ 1051 Mark
High species richness can be observed at ______.
  • A
    both (A) and (C)
  • lower latitudes
  • C
    higher latitudes
  • D
    higher altitudes
Answer
Correct option: B.
lower latitudes
B
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MCQ 1061 Mark
Identify the stage that immediately precedes the sedge meadow stage in hydroseric succession.
  • A
    Rooted submerged stage
  • Reed swamp stage
  • C
    Climax stage
  • D
    Phytoplankton stage
Answer
Correct option: B.
Reed swamp stage
B
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MCQ 1071 Mark
Identify the stage which comes before sedge meadow stage in hydroseric succession.
  • A
    Rooted submerged stage
  • B
    Phytoplankton stage
  • Reed swamp stage
  • D
    Climax stage
Answer
Correct option: C.
Reed swamp stage
C
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MCQ 1091 Mark
In which one of the following organisms does the body fluid enter through nephrostome?
  • A
    Cockroach
  • Earthworm
  • C
    Liver fluke
  • D
    Crab
Answer
Correct option: B.
Earthworm
B
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MCQ 1101 Mark
Match the Columns.
Column A Column B
i. Lice on humans a. Endoparasites
ii. Ectoparasites on marine fishes b. Grows on hedge plants
iii. Cuscuta c. Ectoparasites
iv. Plasmodium and humans d. Copepods
  • A
    i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
  • B
    i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
  • i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
  • D
    i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
C
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MCQ 1111 Mark
Parasitism can be conectly represented as ____________.
  • A
    −,−
  • B
    +, 0
  • C
    +,+
  • +,−
Answer
Correct option: D.
+,−
D
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MCQ 1121 Mark
Identify the correct pair that exhibits commensalism.
  • A
    Wasps and fig tree
  • B
    Cuckoo and crow
  • Orchid and mango tree
  • D
    Cattle or sheep and grass
Answer
Correct option: C.
Orchid and mango tree
C
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MCQ 1131 Mark
What will be the net increase in the population if the average natality was 250, average morta1ity 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30?
  • A
    15
  • B
    05
  • C
    I 0
  • Zero
Answer
Correct option: D.
Zero
D
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MCQ 1141 Mark
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Desert lizards bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops but move into the shade when the ambient temperature starts increasing.

Statement II: Desert lizards evolved physiological adaptations to maintain body temperature.

  • Statement I is correct while Statement lI is incorrect.
  • B
    Statement I is incorrect while Statement II is correct.
  • C
    Both the statements are incorrect.
  • D
    Both the statements are correct.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Statement I is correct while Statement lI is incorrect.
A
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MCQ 1151 Mark
Transfer of which of the following gene improves the oil content and oil quality of oil crops like soybean, oil palm, rapeseed, and sunflower?
  • Arabidopsis gene
  • B
    Cry gene
  • C
    ex.-J antitrypsin
  • D
    Phytoene gene
Answer
Correct option: A.
Arabidopsis gene
A
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MCQ 1161 Mark
For which of the following needs the transgenic animals are generally produced?
  • A
    Testing of chemical safety
  • B
    Testing of vaccine safety
  • C
    Production of pharmacologically important proteins
  • All of the above
Answer
Correct option: D.
All of the above
D
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MCQ 1171 Mark
Which of the following is used for the isolation and purification of the desired product produced by transformed cells?
  • A
    Agarose gel electrophoresis
  • B
    Mass spectrometry
  • C
    Upstream processing
  • Downstream processing
Answer
Correct option: D.
Downstream processing
D
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MCQ 1181 Mark
Which of the following is an INCORRECT match?
  • A
    Plasmid - pBR322
  • B
    MAC - Mammalian Artificial Chromosome
  • C
    YAC - Yeast Artificial Chromosome
  • BAC - Baculovirus Artificial Chromosome
Answer
Correct option: D.
BAC - Baculovirus Artificial Chromosome
D
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MCQ 1191 Mark
Identify the reason/s due to which Trichoclerma species is a potent biocontrol agent.
  • It produces substances that inhibit other soil-borne pathogens from attacking root, rhizomes of the plant it infects.
  • B
    It produces inorganic substance that increase the productivity of the plants it infects.
  • C
    It produces toxins in the gut of the insect that feeds on it.
  • D
    It produces substances that enrich soil fertility.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It produces substances that inhibit other soil-borne pathogens from attacking root, rhizomes of the plant it infects.
A
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MCQ 1201 Mark
______ is the mycoherbicide.
  • A
    Bacillus thuringiensis
  • B
    Xanthomonas sp.
  • Alternaria crassa
  • D
    Beauveria bassiana
Answer
Correct option: C.
Alternaria crassa
C
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MCQ 1211 Mark
Into which of the following the sewage water is pumped after preliminary treatment?
  • Primary sedimentation tank
  • B
    Grit chamber
  • C
    Anaerobic sludge digesters
  • D
    Settling tank
Answer
Correct option: A.
Primary sedimentation tank
A
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MCQ 1221 Mark
Which one of the following processes involved in alcohol production is NOT involved in wine production?
  • A
    Mashing
  • B
    Malting
  • Distillation
  • D
    Fermentation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Distillation
C
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MCQ 1231 Mark
Which of the following is/are used for production of beverages like wine, beer, whiskey, brandy or rum?
  • A
    Lactobacillus bulgaricus
  • Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • C
    Propionibacterium shermanii
  • D
    Lactobacillus acidophilus
Answer
Correct option: B.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B
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MCQ 1241 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT match.
  • A
    Muscle tumors - Myosarcoma
  • B
    Bone tumors - Osteosarcoma
  • C
    Cancer of cartilage - Chondrosarcoma
  • Cancer of adipose tissue - Liposarcoma
Answer
Correct option: D.
Cancer of adipose tissue - Liposarcoma
D
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MCQ 1251 Mark
Which of the following is the terminology used to describe cancer of breast, lung, and skin?
  • Carcinomas
  • B
    Lymphomas
  • C
    Sarcomas
  • D
    Adenocarcinoma
Answer
Correct option: A.
Carcinomas
A
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MCQ 1261 Mark
Which of the following statements is TRUE for individuals having 'AB' blood group?
  • They have both antigen 'A' and 'B' on the surface of their RBCs and no antibodies in their plasma.
  • B
    They have 'B' antigen on the surface of their RBCs and 'a' antibodies in their plasma.
  • C
    They have 'A' antigen on the surface of their RBCs and b antibodies in their plasma.
  • D
    They lack 'A' and 'B' antigens on the surface of their RBCs and show presence of both 'a' and 'b' antibodies in their plasma.
Answer
Correct option: A.
They have both antigen 'A' and 'B' on the surface of their RBCs and no antibodies in their plasma.
A
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MCQ 1271 Mark
The entire body is protected from attack from its own immune system due to the ______
  • A
    killer T-cells
  • suppressor T-cells
  • C
    helper T-cells
  • D
    memory T cells
Answer
Correct option: B.
suppressor T-cells
B
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MCQ 1281 Mark
Which cells deliver co-stimulatory signals for helper T-cells?
  • APCs
  • B
    RBCs
  • C
    Lymphocytes
  • D
    Mast cells
Answer
Correct option: A.
APCs
A
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MCQ 1291 Mark
Which type of immunity is acquired due to infection?
  • A
    Artificial acquired passive immunity
  • Natural acquired active immunity
  • C
    Artificial acquired active immunity
  • D
    Natural acquired passive immunity
Answer
Correct option: B.
Natural acquired active immunity
B
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MCQ 1301 Mark
Which hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is essential to maintain the endometrium during pregnancy?
  • A
    FSH
  • B
    LH
  • C
    FSH
  • Progesterone
Answer
Correct option: D.
Progesterone
D
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MCQ 1311 Mark
Which is the only gland that stores its hormones?
  • A
    Pineal gland
  • Thyroid gland
  • C
    Pituitary gland
  • D
    Hypothalamus
Answer
Correct option: B.
Thyroid gland
B
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MCQ 1321 Mark
Match the following.
Column I Column II
i. Oxytocin a. Stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes in DCT and collecting ducts.
ii. Vasopressin b. Stimulates the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones.
iii. LH c. Stimulates contraction of uterus during parturition.
iv. TSH d. Induces discharge of ovum from Graafian follicles.
  • A
    i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
  • B
    i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
  • i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
  • D
    i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
C
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MCQ 1331 Mark
Which hormones are released by the posterior pituitary?
  • A
    Oxytocin and prolactin
  • B
    Vasopressin and relaxin
  • Oxytocin and vasopressin
  • D
    Prolactin and adrenaline
Answer
Correct option: C.
Oxytocin and vasopressin
C
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MCQ 1341 Mark
Identify the secondary messenger(s).
  • A
    $Ca ^{++}$
  • All of these
  • C
    cGMP
  • D
    $IP _3$
Answer
Correct option: B.
All of these
B
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MCQ 1351 Mark
which of the following are hormones stored and released from neurohypophysis?
  • A
    Follicle stimulating hormone and Leutinizing hormone
  • Oxytocin and Vasopressin
  • C
    Thyroid stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
  • D
    Prolactin and Vasopressin
Answer
Correct option: B.
Oxytocin and Vasopressin
B
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MCQ 1361 Mark
All of the following are the functions of lymph, EXCEPT
  • Transport RBCs
  • B
    Transport lymphocyte and antibodies
  • C
    Transport absorbed fat
  • D
    Drain excess tissue fluid
Answer
Correct option: A.
Transport RBCs
A
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MCQ 1371 Mark
Blood pressure ______ indicates hypotension.
  • A
    above 140/90 mmHg
  • B

    120/80 mmHg

  • C
    above 150/110 mmHg
  • below 90/60 mmHg
Answer
Correct option: D.
below 90/60 mmHg
D
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MCQ 1381 Mark
With which of the following event the cardiac cycle starts?
  • A
    Beginning of ventricular diastole
  • Auricular systole
  • C
    Auricular diastole
  • D
    Ventricular systole
Answer
Correct option: B.
Auricular systole
B
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MCQ 1391 Mark
For which of the following reason the SA node acts as the normal pacemaker?
  • A
    SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation.
  • B
    SA node is the only component to generate the threshold potential.
  • C
    Only the SA node can convey the action potential to the other components.
  • SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.
Answer
Correct option: D.
SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.
D
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MCQ 1401 Mark
______ is a defensive protein useful in blood clotting.
  • Thrombin
  • B
    Albumin
  • C
    Insulin
  • D
    lmmunoglobulin
Answer
Correct option: A.
Thrombin
A
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MCQ 1411 Mark
Which of the following is a major part of the plasma?
  • A
    Blood cells
  • B
    Inorganic substances
  • Water
  • D
    Organic substances
Answer
Correct option: C.
Water
C
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MCQ 1421 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE regarding leucocytosis?
  • Both (B) and (C)
  • B
    This condition occurs during pregnancy.
  • C
    It is temporary increase in number of WBCs.
  • D
    It is the decrease in number of WBCs.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Both (B) and (C)
A
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MCQ 1431 Mark
Which class of the following phytohonnone does kinetin belong to?
  • Cytokinin
  • B
    Auxin
  • C
    ABA
  • D
    Gibberellin
Answer
Correct option: A.
Cytokinin
A
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MCQ 1441 Mark
Since ABA inhibits growth which is stimulated by gibberellin it is also called as a ______.
  • A
    stress hormone
  • B
    non-gibberellin
  • C
    secondary hormone
  • anti-gibberellin
Answer
Correct option: D.
anti-gibberellin
D
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MCQ 1451 Mark
Formation of abscission layer is caused due to ______.
  • A
    increased gibberellins concentration
  • decreased auxin concentration
  • C
    increased auxin concentration
  • D
    decreased gibberellins concentration
Answer
Correct option: B.
decreased auxin concentration
B
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MCQ 1461 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding physiological effects of ethylene.
  • A
    It increases activity of chlorophyllase enzyme causing degreening effect.
  • B
    It causes epinasty (drooping) of leaves and flowers.
  • C
    It inhibits flowering in most of the plants except pineapple.
  • It prevents formation of abscission layer in leaves and fruits.
Answer
Correct option: D.
It prevents formation of abscission layer in leaves and fruits.
D
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MCQ 1471 Mark
Synonym/IUPAC name of kinetin is ____________.
  • A
    Indole-3-acetic acid
  • B
    1-Napthaleneacetic acid
  • C
    2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
  • 6-Furfurylaminopurine
Answer
Correct option: D.
6-Furfurylaminopurine
D
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MCQ 1481 Mark
For which of the following reason root cap has no function in water absorption?
  • A
    It has cells without chloroplast.
  • It has no root hair.
  • C
    Its vascular system is not directly connected.
  • D
    Its cells are loosely placed.
Answer
Correct option: B.
It has no root hair.
B
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MCQ 1491 Mark
Epiphytic plants like orchids absorb water vapours from air with the help of ______ having special tissue called velamen.
  • epiphytic roots
  • B
    hydathodes
  • C
    lenticels
  • D
    phloem
Answer
Correct option: A.
epiphytic roots
A
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MCQ 1501 Mark
Which of the following are the components of cell wall of root hair?
  • Pectic compounds and cellulose
  • B
    Acidic compounds
  • C
    Phospholipids
  • D
    Starch
Answer
Correct option: A.
Pectic compounds and cellulose
A
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MCQ 1511 Mark
Which part of the root helps in the maximum absorption of water and minerals?
  • A
    Root cap
  • B
    Zone of maturation
  • Root hairs
  • D
    Meristematic zone
Answer
Correct option: C.
Root hairs
C
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MCQ 1521 Mark
Which of the following are the properties of water?
  • All of these
  • B
    High heat of fusion
  • C
    High heat of vaporization
  • D
    High specific heat
Answer
Correct option: A.
All of these
A
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MCQ 1531 Mark
The cranial capacity of Homo erectus is ______.
  • A
    650 cc
  • B
    1400 cc
  • 900 cc
  • D
    450 cc
Answer
Correct option: C.
900 cc
C
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MCQ 1541 Mark
Select the correct chronological order of human evolution.
  • A
    Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
  • Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
  • C
    Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus →Homo erectus
  • D
    Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus
Answer
Correct option: B.
Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
B
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MCQ 1551 Mark
Identify the human ancestor which showed both ape-like and man-like characters.
  • A
    Neanderthal man
  • Australopithecus
  • C
    Ramapithecus
  • D
    Homo habilis
Answer
Correct option: B.
Australopithecus
B
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MCQ 1561 Mark
____________ results in variation in gene frequencies within population by chance rather than by natural selection.
  • A
    Random mating
  • B
    Genetic flow
  • C
    Genetic recombination
  • Genetic drift
Answer
Correct option: D.
Genetic drift
D
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MCQ 1571 Mark
Reproductive isolation does not occur due to ______.
  • A
    change in genetic material
  • B
    change in gene pool
  • C
    structure of genital organs
  • barriers like glacier
Answer
Correct option: D.
barriers like glacier
D
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MCQ 1581 Mark
Meselson and Stahl used ____________ in the experiment to prove semiconservative DNA replication.
  • A
    Bacteriophage and E. coli
  • B
    Radioactive phosphorus and Bacteriophage
  • Heavy isotope$N^{15}$ and E.coli
  • D
    Radioactive sulphur and Bacteriophage
Answer
Correct option: C.
Heavy isotope$N^{15}$ and E.coli
C
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MCQ 1591 Mark
In prokaryotes, the enzyme RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter by its ______.
  • A
    δ - subunit
  • σ - subunit
  • C
    γ - subunit
  • D
    β - subunit
Answer
Correct option: B.
σ - subunit
B
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MCQ 1601 Mark
Which of the following was used by Hershey and Chase to provide the unambiguous proof that DNA is the genetic material?
  • A
    Algae
  • B
    Fungi
  • Bacteriophage
  • D
    Protozoa
Answer
Correct option: C.
Bacteriophage
C
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MCQ 1611 Mark
The following diagram represents an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Identify A, B and C. 
Image
  • A
    A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erwin Char gaff
  • B
    A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson
  • C
    A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin
  • A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick
Answer
Correct option: D.
A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick
D
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MCQ 1621 Mark
Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct option.
List-I List-II
i. Ribozyme a. Lac operon
ii. Friedrich Miescher b. DNS as genetic material
iii. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase c. Catalytic RNA molecule
iv. Francois-Jacob d. DNA is acidic substance
  • A
    i - a, ii - b, iii - d, iv - c
  • B
    i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
  • C
    i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
  • i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
Answer
Correct option: D.
i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
D
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MCQ 1631 Mark
Identify the option that correctly represents the number of chromosomes in Down syndrome.
  • $21^{\text {st }}$ pair with an additional chromosome $=47$
  • B
    $22^{\text {nd }}$ pair with an additional chromosome $=45$
  • C
    One extra sex chromosome $=47$
  • D
    $11^{\text {th }}$ pair with an additional chromosome $=47$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$21^{\text {st }}$ pair with an additional chromosome $=47$
A
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MCQ 1641 Mark
Identify the disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction.
  • A
    Sickle cell anaemia
  • B
    Turner syndrome
  • Down syndrome
  • D
    Klinefelter syndrome
Answer
Correct option: C.
Down syndrome
C
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MCQ 1651 Mark
There are five daughters and no son in a family. It is because
  • A
    sperm with Y chromosome are weaker and not effective.
  • B
    father produced only X containing sperm.
  • sperm with X chromosome fertilized the egg.
  • D
    father produced sperms only with autosomes.
Answer
Correct option: C.
sperm with X chromosome fertilized the egg.
C
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MCQ 1661 Mark
Girl of normal vision whose father was colour blind marries a man of normal vision whose father was also colour blind. The sons of this marriage would be ______.
  • A
    all colour blind
  • 50% colour blind
  • C
    all normal
  • D
    25% colour blind
Answer
Correct option: B.
50% colour blind
B
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MCQ 1671 Mark
Study the following statements with respect to widow's peak and select the correct option.
$\text{(i)}$ Individuals with homozygous recessive $\text{(ww)}$ genotype have a straight hair line $($no widows peak$)$.
$\text{(ii)}$ It occurs in only in homozygous dominant $\text{(WW)}$ individuals.
$\text{(iii)}$ It is determined by autosomal dominant gene.
  • A
    Statement $\text{i}$ is correct whereas statements $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii} $ are incorrect.
  • Statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect whereas statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
  • C
    Statement $\text{iii}$ is correct whereas statements $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
  • D
    Statement $\text{ii}$ is correct whereas statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect whereas statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
Statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect whereas statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
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MCQ 1681 Mark
Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement I: The densely packed transcriptionally active, light staining region of chromatin is known as 'Heterochromatin'.

Statement II: The loosely packed, dark staining transcriptionally inactive region of chromatin is known as 'Euchromatin'.

  • A
    Both the statements are correct.
  • B
    Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
  • C
    Statement II is correct and Statement I is incorrect.
  • Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Both the statements are incorrect.
D
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MCQ 1691 Mark
Select the correct sequence of oogenesis.
  • A
    Oogonia $\rightarrow$ Secondary oocyte $\rightarrow$ Primary oocyte $\rightarrow 1^{\text {st }}$ polar body $\rightarrow$ Ovum
  • Oogonia $\rightarrow$ Primary oocyte $\rightarrow$ Secondary oocyte$\rightarrow$ Ovum
  • C
    Primary oocyte $\rightarrow$ Secondary oocyte $\rightarrow$ Oogonia $\rightarrow$ Ovum
  • D
    Ovum $\rightarrow$ Secondary oocyte $\rightarrow$ Primary oocyte $\rightarrow$ Oogonia
Answer
Correct option: B.
Oogonia $\rightarrow$ Primary oocyte $\rightarrow$ Secondary oocyte$\rightarrow$ Ovum
B
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MCQ 1701 Mark
When does ovulatory phase occur?
  • A
    At the beginning of proliferative phase
  • B
    At the end of luteal phase
  • At the end of proliferative phase
  • D
    Just before the end of secretory phase
Answer
Correct option: C.
At the end of proliferative phase
C
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MCQ 1711 Mark
All are internal genitalia in females. EXCEPT ______.
  • A
    Vagina
  • Mammary gland
  • C
    Ovaries
  • D
    Oviduct
Answer
Correct option: B.
Mammary gland
B
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MCQ 1741 Mark
Which of the following is the male accessory gland?
  • A
    Seminal vesicles
  • B
    Prostate gland
  • All of these
  • D
    Cowper's gland
Answer
Correct option: C.
All of these
C
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MCQ 1751 Mark
The success of seed plants on land is mainly due to ______.
  • A
    presence of conducting tissues
  • evolution of siphonogamy
  • C
    presence of mechanical tissues
  • D
    presence of xylem vessels
Answer
Correct option: B.
evolution of siphonogamy
B
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MCQ 1761 Mark
Identify the INCORRECT statement from the following.

i. The compatible pollen absorbs water and nutrients from the surface of stigma, germinates and produces pollen tube.

ii. The pistil has the ability to recognise and accept the right or compatible pollen of the same species.

iii. Pollination always guarantee the transfer of right type of pollen grain on stigma.

  • A
    Only i
  • B
    Both i and ii
  • C
    i, ii and iii
  • Only iii
Answer
Correct option: D.
Only iii
D
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MCQ 1771 Mark
For which of the following reason stigma and anther mature at different times in some plants?
  • A
    As it attracts pollinators
  • As it facilitates cross pollination
  • C
    As it facilitates self pollination
  • D
    As it prevents cross pollination
Answer
Correct option: B.
As it facilitates cross pollination
B
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MCQ 1781 Mark
Which type of pollination is observed in Anthocephalus and Kigelia pinnata?
  • A
    Ornithophily
  • Chiropterophily
  • C
    Entomophily
  • D
    Anemophily
Answer
Correct option: B.
Chiropterophily
B
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MCQ 1791 Mark
The haploid cell which divides by mitosis to form embryo sac is ______.
  • A
    microspore mother cell
  • functional megaspore
  • C
    functional megaspore
  • D
    diploid megaspore
Answer
Correct option: B.
functional megaspore
B
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MCQ 1801 Mark
How many microspore mother cells will be there in each pollen chamber if there are 1280 microspores in a tetralocular anther?
  • A
    1280
  • B
    160
  • 80
  • D
    240
Answer
Correct option: C.
80
C
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MCQ 1821 Mark
The first step of urine formation takes place in the ______.
  • glomerulus
  • B
    minor calyx
  • C
    efferent arteriole
  • D
    afferent arteriole
Answer
Correct option: A.
glomerulus
A
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MCQ 1831 Mark
Role of ADH is ______.
  • A
    diluting of urine
  • B
    to detect change in osmolarity of blood
  • concentration of urine
  • D
    increasing heart beat
Answer
Correct option: C.
concentration of urine
C
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MCQ 1841 Mark
Urethra is a passage from which urine is ____________.
  • A
    retained
  • B
    reabsorbed
  • released
  • D
    formed
Answer
Correct option: C.
released
C
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MCQ 1851 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
  • A
    Both limbs of the loop of Henle are permeable to water but impermeable to electrolytes.
  • The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
  • C
    Both limbs of the loop of Henle are permeable to electrolytes but impermeable to water.
  • D
    The descending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
Answer
Correct option: B.
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
B
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MCQ 1861 Mark
If fats are not digested properly in humans it may be an indication of ____________.
  • A
    absence of enterokinase
  • B
    under secretion of saliva
  • inflammation of liver
  • D
    reduced enzyme activity in large intestine
Answer
Correct option: C.
inflammation of liver
C
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MCQ 1871 Mark
Bile contains all of the following. EXCEPT
  • A
    Bilirubin
  • B
    Bile salts
  • Enzymes
  • D
    Cholesterol
Answer
Correct option: C.
Enzymes
C
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MCQ 1881 Mark
In the given histology of the alimentary canal, identify $\text{i, ii},$ and $\text{iii}$. 
Image
  • Serosa
    Submucosa
    Mucosa
  • B
    Mucosa
    Submucosa
    Serosa
  • C
    Serosa
    Mucosa
    Submucosa
  • D
    Submucosa
    Mucosa
    Serosa
Answer
Correct option: A.
Serosa
Submucosa
Mucosa
Serosa
Submucosa
Mucosa
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MCQ 1891 Mark
The common bile duct and pancreatic form ______.
  • hepato-pancreatic duct
  • B
    duct of gall bladder
  • C
    cystic duct
  • D
    hepatic duct
Answer
Correct option: A.
hepato-pancreatic duct
A
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MCQ 1901 Mark
Expulsion of undigested food by a voluntary process taking places through the anal opening is called ______.
  • A
    absorption
  • egestion
  • C
    assimilation
  • D
    ingestion
Answer
Correct option: B.
egestion
B
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MCQ 1911 Mark
Which of the following occurs during preparatory phase of glycolysis?
  • both Cleavage of hexose into two triose molecules and Phosphorylation of glucose.
  • B
    Cleavage of hexose into two triose molecules.
  • C
    Oxidation of phosphoglyceraldehyde.
  • D
    Phosphorylation of glucose.
Answer
Correct option: A.
both Cleavage of hexose into two triose molecules and Phosphorylation of glucose.
A
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MCQ 1921 Mark
In which of the conversions, $NADH + H ^{+}$ is not formed?
  • A
    α - Ketoglutaric acid into succinyl-Co-A.
  • B
    Iso-citric acid into oxalosuccinic acid.
  • Succinic acid into fumaric acid.
  • D
    Malic acid into oxaloacetic acid.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Succinic acid into fumaric acid.
C
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MCQ 1931 Mark
In ______ steps, $CO _2$ is released in aerobic respiration.
  • Three
  • B
    One or Two
  • C
    Six
  • D
    Twelve
Answer
Correct option: A.
Three
A
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MCQ 1941 Mark
First ______ constitute the preparatory phase through which glucose is phosphorylated twice at the cost of ______ molecules.
  • A
    6 steps, 2 ATP
  • B
    5 steps, 4 ATP
  • C
    5 steps, 6 ATP
  • 5 steps, 2 ATP
Answer
Correct option: D.
5 steps, 2 ATP
D
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MCQ 1951 Mark
____________ refers to a biochemical process of oxidation of organic compounds in an orderly manner for the liberation of chemical energy in the form of ATP.
  • Respiration
  • B
    Transpiration
  • C
    Transcription
  • D
    Reduction
Answer
Correct option: A.
Respiration
A
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MCQ 1961 Mark
Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
i. Lyases a. Catalyse hydrolytic reactions
ii. Ligases b. Enzymes catalyzing a transfer of a group G between a pair of substrate S and S'
iii. Hydrolases c. They catalyse remoyal of groups from substrates by mechanisms
iv. Transferases d. They catalyse the linking together 2 compounds
  • A
    i - d, ii - a ,iii - c, iv - b
  • B
    i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
  • i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
  • D
    i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
C
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MCQ 1971 Mark
Bile salts bring about emulsification of fats and activate the enzyme ______.
  • A
    Trypsinogen
  • Lipase
  • C
    Pepsinogen
  • D
    Chymotrypsinogen
Answer
Correct option: B.
Lipase
B
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MCQ 1981 Mark
______ is a single ring compound.
  • Pyrimidine
  • B
    Purine
  • C
    Steroid
  • D
    Carotenoid
Answer
Correct option: A.
Pyrimidine
A
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MCQ 1991 Mark
From the following identify the INCORRECT match with respect to the different structures of proteins.
  • A
    Secondary structure: Helix
  • B
    Tertiary structure: Three dimensional structure
  • Quaternary structure: Single polypeptide chain
  • D
    Primary structure: Linear
Answer
Correct option: C.
Quaternary structure: Single polypeptide chain
C
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MCQ 2001 Mark
Match the columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
i. Starch a. Animal storage molecule
ii. Cellulose b. Plant storage molecule
iii. Glycogen c. Heparin
iv. Heteropolysaccharide d. Plant cell wall component
  • A
    i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
  • B
    i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
  • C
    i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
  • i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
Answer
Correct option: D.
i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
D
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