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MCQ

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219 questions · 205 auto-graded MCQ + 14 self-marked written.

MCQ 11 Mark
CFC are air polluting agents which are produced by
  • A
    Diesel trucks
  • Jet planes
  • C
    Rice fields
  • D
    Industries
Answer
Correct option: B.
Jet planes
Jet planes
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MCQ 21 Mark
The term “terror of Bengal’ is used for
  • A
    algal bloom
  • water hyacinth
  • C
    increased BOD
  • D
    eutrophication
Answer
Correct option: B.
water hyacinth
water hyacinth
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MCQ 31 Mark
Which of the following factors will favour species diversity?
  • Invasive species
  • B
    Glaciation
  • C
    Forest canopy
  • D
    Co-extinction
Answer
Correct option: A.
Invasive species
Invasive species
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MCQ 41 Mark
Select odd one out on the basis of Ex situ conservation.
  • Zoological park
  • B
    Tissue culture
  • C
    Sacred groves
  • D
    Cryopreservation
Answer
Correct option: A.
Zoological park
Zoological park
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MCQ 51 Mark
Observe the graph and select the correct option.Image
  • A
    Line A represents, S = CA²
  • B
    Line B represents, log C = log A + Z log S
  • Line A represents, $S=C A^Z$
  • D
    Line B represents, log S = log Z + C log A
Answer
Correct option: C.
Line A represents, $S=C A^Z$
Line A represents, $S=C A^Z$
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MCQ 61 Mark
Name the award declared by Government of India to motivate people for protecting wildlife.
  • A
    Amrita Devi-Bishnoi Tree Protection Award.
  • Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
  • C
    Amrita Devi-Chipko Movement Award.
  • D
    Bahuguna – Chipko Movement Award.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
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MCQ 71 Mark
Which policy is introduced by Government of India to conserve forests effectively with local people ?
  • A
    Wildlife protection
  • B
    Chipko movement
  • Joint forest movement
  • D
    Joint tree plantation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Joint forest movement
Joint forest movement
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MCQ 81 Mark
What is snow-blindness cataract ?
  • A
    Cataract noticed in people living in snow clad areas.
  • B
    Cataract that shows symptom of white dense patch.
  • Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
  • D
    Cataract that causes total blindness.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
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MCQ 91 Mark
UV-B does not cause ……………………
  • A
    aging of skin
  • B
    damage to skin cells
  • C
    various types of skin cancers
  • albinism or lightning of the skin
Answer
Correct option: D.
albinism or lightning of the skin
albinism or lightning of the skin
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MCQ 101 Mark
‘Good ozone’ is found in the while the bad ozone is in ………………….
  • A
    Mesosphere, Ionosphere
  • B
    Mesosphere, Troposphere
  • Stratosphere, Troposphere
  • D
    Stratosphere, Ionosphere
Answer
Correct option: C.
Stratosphere, Troposphere
Stratosphere, Troposphere
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MCQ 111 Mark
What is exactly measured in Dobson units or DU?
  • The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
  • B
    The noise level in the circumscribed area.
  • C
    The amount of chlorofluorocarbons.
  • D
    The hole in the ozone umbrella.
Answer
Correct option: A.
The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
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MCQ 121 Mark
Which are the four most affected aspects due to climate change caused due to global warming?
  • A
    Energy, Agricultural research, Sewage disposed, Entertainment.
  • Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
  • C
    Political views, Equality, Natural Resources, Safety of women.
  • D
    Education, Empowerment of people, Shelter, Processed food.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
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MCQ 131 Mark
Montreal Protocol aims at ……………………
  • A
    Biodiversity conservation
  • B
    Control of water pollution
  • C
    Control of CO2 emission
  • Reduction of ozone depleting substances
Answer
Correct option: D.
Reduction of ozone depleting substances
Reduction of ozone depleting substances
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MCQ 141 Mark
Clouds and gases reflect about ………………… of the incoming solar radiation.
  • A
    one half
  • one-fourth
  • C
    one tenth
  • D
    three-fourth
Answer
Correct option: B.
one-fourth
one-fourth
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MCQ 151 Mark
Why naturally occurring greenhouse effect is important?
  • It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
  • B
    It maintains the temperature of earth at 18 °C.
  • C
    It maintains lot of greenery on the surface of the earth.
  • D
    It maintains level of ozone in atmosphere.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
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MCQ 161 Mark
Which is the chief reason of global warming ?
  • Greenhouse effect
  • B
    Absorption of UV radiations by ozone
  • C
    Effect of visible light
  • D
    Trapping of radio waves
Answer
Correct option: A.
Greenhouse effect
Greenhouse effect
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MCQ 171 Mark
The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are
  • $CO _2$ and $CH _4$
  • B
    $CH _4$ and $N _2 O$
  • C
    $CFCs$ and $N _2 O$
  • D
    $CO _2$ and $N _2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$CO _2$ and $CH _4$
 $CO _2$ and $CH _4$
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MCQ 181 Mark
Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) greenhouse gases that contribute to the total global warming ?
  • CFCs $14 \%$, Methane $20 \%$
  • B
    $CO _2 40 \%, CFCs 30 \%$
  • C
    $N _2 O 6 \%, CO _2 86 \%$
  • D
    Methane $20 \%, N _2 O 18 \%$
Answer
Correct option: A.
CFCs $14 \%$, Methane $20 \%$
CFCs $14 \%$, Methane $20 \%$
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MCQ 191 Mark
Greenhouse effect is warming due to
  • A
    infra-red rays reaching earth
  • B
    moisture layer in the atmosphere
  • increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
  • D
    ozone layer in the atmosphere
Answer
Correct option: C.
increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
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MCQ 201 Mark
Which metals are recovered from recycling of E-waste ?
  • Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
  • B
    Platinum, aluminium, silicon, silver and rhodium.
  • C
    Sodium, iron, silicon, uranium and potassium.
  • D
    Copper, radium, zinc, cobalt and titanium.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
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MCQ 211 Mark
For treatment of e-waste, which is the most suitable solution ?
  • Recycling and recovery
  • B
    Buried in landfills
  • C
    Incineration
  • D
    Disposal and storage in open
Answer
Correct option: A.
Recycling and recovery
Recycling and recovery
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MCQ 221 Mark
Which is valid suggestion for responsible citizen to deal with managing non- biodegradable waste ?
  • A
    Mixing of biodegradable and recyclable waste material.
  • B
    Mixing of biodegradable and non- biodegradable waste material.
  • C
    Use of more and more disposable material.
  • Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.
Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.
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MCQ 231 Mark
Which is appropriate method for disposal of hospital wastes ?
  • A
    Sanitary landfills
  • B
    Open dumps
  • Use of incinerators
  • D
    Composting
Answer
Correct option: C.
Use of incinerators
Use of incinerators
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MCQ 241 Mark
From the following, which is a recyclable waste ?
  • A
    Food waste
  • Newspaper
  • C
    Leather
  • D
    Rubber
Answer
Correct option: B.
Newspaper
Newspaper
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MCQ 251 Mark
From the following, which is not a category of sorting of waste ?
  • A
    Recyclable
  • B
    Biodegradable
  • C
    Non-biodegradable
  • Explosive
Answer
Correct option: D.
Explosive
Explosive
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MCQ 261 Mark
Which is adverse effect of sanitary land fill noticed occasionally?
  • A
    Breeding place for rats and flies.
  • Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
  • C
    Burning of hazardous waste.
  • D
    Accumulation of biodegradable materials.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
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MCQ 271 Mark
Which statement correctly describes the process of waste disposal in sanitary landfill ?
  • A
    Solid wastes are dumped in a trench or depression.
  • B
    Solid wastes are dumped in a depression and compacted.
  • Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
  • D
    Solid wastes are dumped in a trench and burnt to reduce volume.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
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MCQ 281 Mark
What is the appropriate scientific method for waste disposed ?
  • A
    Land fill
  • B
    Open burning dump
  • Sanitary landfill
  • D
    Open dumps (Junk yards)
Answer
Correct option: C.
Sanitary landfill
Sanitary landfill
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MCQ 291 Mark
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution of water bodies receiving effluents from
  • A
    domestic sewage
  • B
    dairy industry
  • petroleum industry
  • D
    sugar industry
Answer
Correct option: C.
petroleum industry
petroleum industry
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MCQ 301 Mark
Which method was commonly practised for managing solid waste generated by municipal bodies ?
  • A
    Open dumps
  • Open burning dumps
  • C
    Accumulation in trenches
  • D
    Accumulation in water bodies
Answer
Correct option: B.
Open burning dumps
Open burning dumps
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MCQ 311 Mark
Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because
  • A
    excessive carbon dioxide is added to water
  • B
    it gives off a bad smell
  • C
    it removes the food eaten by the fish
  • it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen
Answer
Correct option: D.
it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen
it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen
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MCQ 321 Mark
Which river of India is considered as an unending sewer ?
  • A
    Mula in Pune
  • B
    Panchaganga in Kolhapur
  • Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
  • D
    Patalganga in Panvel
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
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MCQ 331 Mark
When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its BOD will
  • increase
  • B
    decrease
  • C
    sharply decrease
  • D
    remain unchanged
Answer
Correct option: A.
increase
increase
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MCQ 341 Mark
High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that
  • A
    consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
  • B
    water is pure
  • water is highly polluted
  • D
    water is less polluted
Answer
Correct option: C.
water is highly polluted
water is highly polluted
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MCQ 351 Mark
Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for
  • estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
  • B
    working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
  • C
    measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale.
  • D
    working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
Answer
Correct option: A.
estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
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MCQ 361 Mark
Eutrophication is caused by
  • A
    acid rain
  • nitrates and phosphates
  • C
    sulphates and carbonates
  • D
    $CO _2$ and CO
Answer
Correct option: B.
nitrates and phosphates
nitrates and phosphates
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MCQ 371 Mark
Choose the incorrect statement from the following statements
  • A
    Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta.
  • B
    One can save lot of water if flush is not used for sanitation.
  • C
    Ecological sanitation is a practical, hygienic, efficient and cost-effective solution to human waste disposed.
  • Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.
Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.
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MCQ 381 Mark
Which of the statement is incorrect with reference to thermal waste water ?
  • A
    Thermal wastewater eliminates or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature.
  • B
    Thermal wastewater may enhance the growth of plants and fish in extremely cold areas.
  • C
    Thermal wastewater causes damage to the indigenous flora and fauna.
  • Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.
Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.
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MCQ 391 Mark
Which major pollutant is released from electricity generating units ?
  • heated water
  • B
    arsenic
  • C
    cadmium
  • D
    ammonia
Answer
Correct option: A.
heated water
heated water
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MCQ 401 Mark
Choose the correct statement
  • A
    Concentration of DDT in the water declined with the passing time.
  • B
    Concentration of DDT in the water remains the same over many years without any effect.
  • C
    If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds.
  • D
    If concentration of DDT is 25 ppm in water, in fish-eating bird population it reduces to 0.003 ppb later.
Answer
If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds
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MCQ 411 Mark
Which two substances are well-known for biomagnification ?
  • Mercury and DDT
  • B
    Cadmium and Lead
  • C
    Petroleum hydrocarbons and sewage
  • D
    Paper manufacturing effluents and copper
Answer
Correct option: A.
Mercury and DDT
Mercury and DDT
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MCQ 421 Mark
Which is world’s most problematic aquatic weed ?
  • A
    Hydrilla
  • B
    Pistia
  • Eichhornia crassipes
  • D
    Duckweed
Answer
Correct option: C.
Eichhornia crassipes
Eichhornia crassipes
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MCQ 431 Mark
When there are excessive microorganisms in the water that cause biodegradation there is
  • A
    sharp rise in the dissolved oxygen content
  • sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
  • C
    refreshing odour to the water
  • D
    loss of algal population
Answer
Correct option: B.
sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
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MCQ 441 Mark
What is the outcome of algal bloom ?
  • A
    Lots of algae available for fodder.
  • B
    Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.
  • C
    Cleaning up of the ambient water.
  • D
    Decrease in BOD amount.
Answer
Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality
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MCQ 451 Mark
A mere ………………… impurities make water contaminated with domestic sewage unfit for human use.
  • A
    $0.8 \%$
  • B
    $0.7 \%$
  • C
    $0.5 \%$
  • $0.1 \%$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$0.1 \%$
$0.1 \%$
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MCQ 461 Mark
When was Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act passed by the Government of India ?
  • 1974
  • B
    1984
  • C
    1986
  • D
    1992
Answer
Correct option: A.
1974
1974
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MCQ 471 Mark
Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level
  • A
    above 30 dB
  • above 80 dB
  • C
    above 100 dB
  • D
    above 120 dB
Answer
Correct option: B.
above 80 dB
above 80 dB
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MCQ 481 Mark
dB is the standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of
  • A
    the density of bacteria in a medium
  • a particular pollutant
  • C
    the dominant Bacillus in a culture
  • D
    a certain pesticide
Answer
Correct option: B.
a particular pollutant
 a particular pollutant
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MCQ 491 Mark
To what decibel level noise rises during festive seasons due to crackers ?
  • A
    20 dB
  • B
    50 dB
  • 100 dB
  • D
    150 dB
Answer
Correct option: C.
100 dB
100 dB
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MCQ 501 Mark
How much decibel sound is produced by the jet plane or rocket ?
  • A
    50 dB
  • B
    80 dB
  • 150 dB
  • D
    200 dB
Answer
Correct option: C.
150 dB
150 dB
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MCQ 511 Mark
Acid rains are produced by
  • excess emissions of $NO _2$ and $SO _2$ from burning fossil fuels
  • B
    excess production of $NH _3$ by industry and coal gas
  • C
    excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
  • D
    excess formation of $CO _2$ by combustion and animal respiration
Answer
Correct option: A.
excess emissions of $NO _2$ and $SO _2$ from burning fossil fuels
excess emissions of $NO _2$ and $SO _2$ from burning fossil fuels
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MCQ 521 Mark
How does CO affect plant respiration ?
  • A
    By yellowing leaves
  • B
    By closing stomatal openings
  • By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
  • D
    By causing defoliation and leaf lesions
Answer
Correct option: C.
By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
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MCQ 531 Mark
Which of the following is not the measure to reduce the noise pollution ?
  • A
    Delimitation of horn-free zones around hospitals and schools.
  • B
    Permissible sound-levels of crackers and of loudspeakers.
  • C
    Time limits after which loudspeakers cannot be played.
  • Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.
Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.
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MCQ 541 Mark
When was Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act amended to include noise as an air Pollutant ?
  • A
    1981
  • B
    1984
  • C
    1986
  • 1987
Answer
Correct option: D.
1987
1987
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MCQ 551 Mark
What was observed within a period of 1997 and 2005 in Delhi as regards to air quality ?
  • A
    There was net increase in all the types of air pollutants.
  • B
    Delhi became totally pollution-free during this period only.
  • There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.
  • D
    There was decrease in the concentration of H2S and CO.
Answer
Correct option: C.
There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.
There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.
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MCQ 561 Mark
Which of the following statements is inaccurate ?
  • A
    All automobiles should have Euro-III emission norm compliant automobiles and fuels by 2010.
  • B
    All automobiles and fuel-petrol and diesel – were to have met the Euro-III emission specifications in major 11 cities from April 1, 2005.
  • C
    All automobiles should have to meet the Euro-IV norms by April 1, 2010.
  • Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.
Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.
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MCQ 571 Mark
Which are the other equivalent norms to Euro-II norms ?
  • Bharat stage II
  • B
    Euro-III
  • C
    Euro-IV
  • D
    Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
Answer
Correct option: A.
Bharat stage II
Bharat stage II
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MCQ 581 Mark
Which is the worst polluted city among the world with respect to air pollution ?
  • A
    New York
  • B
    Tokyo
  • New Delhi
  • D
    Dubai
Answer
Correct option: C.
New Delhi
New Delhi
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MCQ 591 Mark
Two thirds of sulphur dioxides are produced by
  • A
    heating plants
  • B
    industrial processes
  • C
    automobile traffic
  • electric power plants
Answer
Correct option: D.
electric power plants
electric power plants
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MCQ 601 Mark
Which part of the electrostatic precipitator attract the charged dust particles ?
  • Collection plates
  • B
    Electrode wires
  • C
    Corona
  • D
    Dust particles
Answer
Correct option: A.
Collection plates
Collection plates
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MCQ 611 Mark
Which expensive metals are fitted into catalytic converters of the automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases ?
  • Platinum-palladium and rhodium
  • B
    Silver, Gold
  • C
    Platinum and Gold
  • D
    Rhodium and Silver
Answer
Correct option: A.
Platinum-palladium and rhodium
Platinum-palladium and rhodium
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MCQ 621 Mark
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because
  • A
    lead causes pollution
  • lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
  • C
    lead makes automobile machinery inefficient
  • D
    lead causes more consumption of petrol
Answer
Correct option: B.
lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
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MCQ 631 Mark
When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the carbon monoxide and nitric oxide ?
  • They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
  • B
    They are changed to oxygen and carbon monoxide respectively.
  • C
    They are converted into hydrocarbons.
  • D
    They remain unchanged.
Answer
Correct option: A.
They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
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MCQ 641 Mark
When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the unburnt hydrocarbons ?
  • A
    They are converted to oxygen and water.
  • B
    They are converted to energy to run the car.
  • They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
  • D
    They are converted to carbonates.
Answer
Correct option: C.
They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
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MCQ 651 Mark
According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health ?
  • 2.5 or less
  • B
    1.5 or less
  • C
    1.0 or less
  • D
    Between 2.5-5.3
Answer
Correct option: A.
2.5 or less
2.5 or less
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MCQ 661 Mark
Which particles are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health ?
  • A
    Particulates with size 1.00 micrometres in diameter.
  • B
    Particulates with size of 10 mm.
  • Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
  • D
    Particulates with size of 100 micrometres in diameter
Answer
Correct option: C.
Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
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MCQ 671 Mark
Which part of the electrostatic precipitator is maintained at several thousand volts ?
  • A
    Collection plates
  • Electrode wires
  • C
    Corona
  • D
    Water line spray
Answer
Correct option: B.
Electrode wires
Electrode wires
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MCQ 681 Mark
Scrubber removes gases like
  • A
    Ozone
  • B
    Carbon dioxide
  • Sulphur dioxide
  • D
    Methane
Answer
Correct option: C.
Sulphur dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
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MCQ 691 Mark
What is the percentage of particulate matter removed from the thermal power exhaust with the help of electrostatic precipitator ?
  • A
    $25%$
  • B
    $50%$
  • C
    $80%$
  • $99%$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$99%$
$99%$
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MCQ 701 Mark
Which equipment is most widely used for filtering out particulate matter ?
  • A
    Scrubber
  • Electrostatic precipitator
  • C
    Filters
  • D
    Centrifuges
Answer
Correct option: B.
Electrostatic precipitator
Electrostatic precipitator
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MCQ 711 Mark
Harmful effects of air pollution does not depend on the
  • A
    concentration of pollutants
  • B
    duration of exposure
  • C
    the type of organism
  • time of the day
Answer
Correct option: D.
time of the day
time of the day
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MCQ 721 Mark
Which of the following can be considered as the most hazardous effect of air pollution ?
  • A
    Reduction in the growth and yield of the crop.
  • B
    Premature death of the plants.
  • C
    Effect on the monuments.
  • Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.
Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.
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MCQ 731 Mark
A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
  • A
    gases like ozone and methane
  • B
    particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
  • gases like sulphur dioxide
  • D
    particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
Answer
Correct option: C.
gases like sulphur dioxide
gases like sulphur dioxide
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MCQ 741 Mark
How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of oxygen into the body tissues ?
  • A
    By destroying haemoglobin.
  • B
    By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin.
  • C
    By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin.
  • D
    By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide.
Answer
By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin
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MCQ 751 Mark
Which is the most dangerous and common kind of environmental pollution ?
  • Air
  • B
    Water
  • C
    Noise
  • D
    Radioactive
Answer
Correct option: A.
Air
Air
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MCQ 761 Mark
The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in …………………
  • A
    1975
  • 1981
  • C
    1985
  • D
    1990
Answer
Correct option: B.
1981
1981
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MCQ 771 Mark
Which of the following expanded form of the given acronyms is correct?
  • A
    IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change.
  • B
    UNEP = United Nations Environment Policy.
  • C
    EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency.
  • D
    IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
Answer
IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
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MCQ 781 Mark
The World Biodiversity Day is observed on ………………..
  • A
    22nd April
  • B
    5th June
  • C
    3rd March
  • 22nd May
Answer
Correct option: D.
22nd May
22nd May
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MCQ 791 Mark
The organization which publishes the Red List of species is …………………
  • A
    UNEP
  • B
    WWF
  • C
    ICFRE
  • D
    IUCN
Answer
lUCN
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MCQ 801 Mark
In which of the following, both pairs have correct combination ?
  • A
    In-situ conservation : Tissue culture Ex-situ conservation : Sacred groves
  • B
    In-situ conservation : National Park Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden
  • C
    In-situ conservation : Cryopreservation Ex-situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
  • D
    In-situ conservation : Seed Bank Ex-situ conservation : National Park
Answer
ln-situ conservation : National Park, Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden
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MCQ 811 Mark
Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as ………………..
  • A
    In-situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
  • B
    In-situ conservation of biodiversity
  • Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
  • D
    In-situ conservation by sacred groves
Answer
Correct option: C.
Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
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MCQ 821 Mark
Which of the following is not an example of ex-situ conservation of biodiversity ?
  • A
    Botanical gardens
  • B
    Culture collections
  • C
    Zoological parks
  • Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity
Answer
Correct option: D.
Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity
Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity
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MCQ 831 Mark
Which of the following is not the outcome of preserving biodiversity ?
  • A
    To maintain the ecological processes.
  • B
    To build national economy.
  • C
    To study life in its natural habitats.
  • To disturb ecological balance.
Answer
Correct option: D.
To disturb ecological balance.
To disturb ecological balance.
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MCQ 841 Mark
Hotspots are the examples of …………………..
  • in-situ conservation
  • B
    ex-situ conservation
  • C
    wildlife protection
  • D
    water conservation
Answer
Correct option: A.
in-situ conservation
in-situ conservation
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MCQ 851 Mark
Chipko andolan movement is to protect the ………………….
  • A
    flora
  • B
    fauna
  • trees
  • D
    rivers
Answer
Correct option: C.
trees
trees
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MCQ 861 Mark
Find the odd one out
  • A
    Seed banks
  • B
    Gene banks
  • C
    In vitro fertilization
  • Electrophoresis
Answer
Correct option: D.
Electrophoresis
Electrophoresis
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MCQ 871 Mark
Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using ………………… techniques.
  • cryopreservation
  • B
    tissue culture
  • C
    formalin preservation
  • D
    DNA hybridization
Answer
Correct option: A.
cryopreservation
cryopreservation
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MCQ 881 Mark
Which of the following does not offer ex-situ conservation to the flora and fauna ?
  • A
    Zoological parks
  • B
    Botanical gardens
  • Sanctuaries
  • D
    Gene banks
Answer
Correct option: C.
Sanctuaries
Sanctuaries
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MCQ 891 Mark
The region with very high levels of species richness is called
  • Biodiversity hotspot
  • B
    National Park
  • C
    Sanctuary
  • D
    Biosphere
Answer
Correct option: A.
Biodiversity hotspot
Biodiversity hotspot
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MCQ 901 Mark
Which of the following suffers due to co-extinction ?
  • A
    Selection of mates for reproduction
  • Plant-pollinator mutualism
  • C
    Feeding preferences
  • D
    Prey-predator relationships
Answer
Correct option: B.
Plant-pollinator mutualism
Plant-pollinator mutualism
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MCQ 911 Mark
The phenomena of co-extinction is observed when ………………….
  • host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
  • B
    parasites are killed, the host too suffers
  • C
    host-parasite relationship is terminated
  • D
    parasites overpower the host
Answer
Correct option: A.
host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
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MCQ 921 Mark
Introduction of which aquaculture fish has created threat to the indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers ?
  • A
    Clarias gariepinus
  • B
    Arius sps.
  • C
    Heteropneustus Jossilis
  • D
    Pangasius pangasius
Answer
Clarlas gariepinus
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MCQ 931 Mark
What are the ‘The Evil Quartet’ for the loss of biodiversity ?
  • Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
  • B
    Pollution, Global warming, Increasing population, Reclamation
  • C
    Greenhouse effect, Sea level rise, Air pollution, Deforestation
  • D
    Agriculture, Industrialization, Urbanization, Constructing transport facilities
Answer
Correct option: A.
Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
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MCQ 941 Mark
Deforestation does not lead to
  • quick nutrient cycling
  • B
    soil erosion
  • C
    alteration of local weather condition
  • D
    destruction of natural habitat of wild animals
Answer
Correct option: A.
quick nutrient cycling
quick nutrient cycling
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MCQ 951 Mark
Which animal group is more vulnerable to the process of extinction ?
  • Amphibian
  • B
    Reptilia
  • C
    Aves
  • D
    Mammalia
Answer
Correct option: A.
Amphibian
Amphibian
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MCQ 961 Mark
When is the serious threat developed to an ecosystem ?
  • A
    When any one or two species become extinct.
  • When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
  • C
    When native species are replaced by exotic species.
  • D
    When human beings take conservation measures.
Answer
Correct option: B.
When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
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MCQ 971 Mark
Name the scientist who studied ecosystem by using analogy of ‘The rivet popper hypothesis’.
  • A
    John Muir
  • B
    Alexander von Humboldt
  • C
    Robert May
  • Paul Ehrlich
Answer
Correct option: D.
Paul Ehrlich
Paul Ehrlich
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MCQ 981 Mark
Which is the most well-known pattern of biodiversity ?
  • A
    Species-Area relationship
  • Latitudinal gradient
  • C
    Longitudinal gradient
  • D
    Altitudinal gradient
Answer
Correct option: B.
Latitudinal gradient
Latitudinal gradient
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MCQ 991 Mark
Who was Alexander von Humboldt ?
  • A
    American Population biologist
  • German naturalist and geographer
  • C
    Dutch Botanist
  • D
    French Zoologist
Answer
Correct option: B.
German naturalist and geographer
German naturalist and geographer
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MCQ 1001 Mark
Who observed that within a region, species richness increased with increasing explored area, to a certain limit ?
  • A
    Robert May
  • B
    John Muir
  • Alexander von Humboldt
  • D
    David Tilman
Answer
Correct option: C.
Alexander von Humboldt
Alexander von Humboldt
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MCQ 1011 Mark
Choose an incorrect statement:
  • A
    The relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.
  • B
    The relation between species richness and area on a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line.
  • C
    For the species-area relationships among very large areas like the entire continents, the slope of the line appears to be much steeper.
  • Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.
Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.
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MCQ 1021 Mark
Regression coefficient is shown by ……………………….. in the Humboldt’s equation [Log S = log C + Z log A] of species richness.
  • A
    S
  • Z
  • C
    A
  • D
    C
Answer
Correct option: B.
Z
Z
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MCQ 1031 Mark
Log S = log C = Z log A is the equation that depicts relation between ………………….
  • A
    population density and time
  • B
    population growth and time
  • species richness and area
  • D
    area and species migrations
Answer
Correct option: C.
species richness and area
species richness and area
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MCQ 1041 Mark
Which of the following is the possible cause for greater biodiversity in the tropics?
  • Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
  • B
    Lesser technological development.
  • C
    Traditional and religious practices for conservation of nature.
  • D
    Lesser natural calamities.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
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MCQ 1051 Mark
The latitudinal gradient in the pattern of biodiversity shows that …………………
  • species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
  • B
    species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles
  • C
    species diversity decreases as we move away from the poles towards the equator
  • D
    species diversity remains constant as we move away from the poles towards the equator
Answer
Correct option: A.
species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
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MCQ 1061 Mark
Biodiversity of geographical region represents …………………….
  • A
    endangered species found in the region
  • the diversity in the organisms living in the region
  • C
    genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region
  • D
    species endemic to the region
Answer
Correct option: B.
the diversity in the organisms living in the region
the diversity in the organisms living in the region
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MCQ 1071 Mark
Biodiversity and its conservation are vital environmental issues of international concern because ……………….
  • A
    it fetches more economic progress and development
  • B
    it can attract more international tourists
  • biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
  • D
    all the animals and plants would be extinct if not taken care of
Answer
Correct option: C.
biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
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MCQ 1081 Mark
India has deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows. What kind of biodiversity is depicted in this statement?
  • A
    Geographic diversity
  • B
    Species diversity
  • Ecological diversity
  • D
    Genetic diversity
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ecological diversity
Ecological diversity
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MCQ 1091 Mark
Which of the following country has the greatest ecosystem diversity?
  • A
    Norway
  • India
  • C
    Sweden
  • D
    Finland
Answer
Correct option: B.
India
India
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MCQ 1101 Mark
Rauwolfia vomitoria shows …………………. in terms of the potency and concentration of reserpine that it produces.
  • genetic diversity
  • B
    species diversity
  • C
    ecological diversity
  • D
    biodiversity
Answer
Correct option: A.
genetic diversity
genetic diversity
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MCQ 1111 Mark
Diversification of plant life appeared ……………………
  • due to long periods of evolutionary changes
  • B
    due to abrupt mutations
  • C
    suddenly on the earth
  • D
    by seed dispersal
Answer
Correct option: A.
due to long periods of evolutionary changes
due to long periods of evolutionary changes
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MCQ 1121 Mark
Diversity in living beings is due to ……………………
  • A
    mutation
  • long term evolutionary change
  • C
    gradual change
  • D
    short term evolutionary change
Answer
Correct option: B.
long term evolutionary change
long term evolutionary change
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MCQ 1131 Mark
Name the award declared by Government of India to motivate people for protecting wildlife.
  • A
    Amrita Devi-Bishnoi Tree Protection Award.
  • Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
  • C
    Amrita Devi-Chipko Movement Award.
  • D
    Bahuguna – Chipko Movement Award.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
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MCQ 1141 Mark
Which policy is introduced by Government of India to conserve forests effectively with local people ?
  • A
    Wildlife protection
  • B
    Chipko movement
  • Joint forest movement
  • D
    Joint tree plantation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Joint forest movement
Joint forest movement
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MCQ 1151 Mark
What is snow-blindness cataract ?
  • A
    Cataract noticed in people living in snow clad areas.
  • B
    Cataract that shows symptom of white dense patch.
  • Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
  • D
    Cataract that causes total blindness.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
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MCQ 1161 Mark
UV-B does not cause ……………………
  • A
    aging of skin
  • B
    damage to skin cells
  • C
    various types of skin cancers
  • albinism or lightning of the skin
Answer
Correct option: D.
albinism or lightning of the skin
albinism or lightning of the skin
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MCQ 1171 Mark
‘Good ozone’ is found in the while the bad ozone is in ………………….
  • A
    Mesosphere, Ionosphere
  • B
    Mesosphere, Troposphere
  • Stratosphere, Troposphere
  • D
    Stratosphere, Ionosphere
Answer
Correct option: C.
Stratosphere, Troposphere
Stratosphere, Troposphere
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MCQ 1181 Mark
What is exactly measured in Dobson units or DU?
  • The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
  • B
    The noise level in the circumscribed area.
  • C
    The amount of chlorofluorocarbons.
  • D
    The hole in the ozone umbrella.
Answer
Correct option: A.
The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
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MCQ 1191 Mark
Which are the four most affected aspects due to climate change caused due to global warming?
  • A
    Energy, Agricultural research, Sewage disposed, Entertainment.
  • Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
  • C
    Political views, Equality, Natural Resources, Safety of women.
  • D
    Education, Empowerment of people, Shelter, Processed food.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
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MCQ 1201 Mark
Montreal Protocol aims at ……………………
  • A
    Biodiversity conservation
  • B
    Control of water pollution
  • C
    Control of CO2 emission
  • Reduction of ozone depleting substances
Answer
Correct option: D.
Reduction of ozone depleting substances
Reduction of ozone depleting substances
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MCQ 1211 Mark
Clouds and gases reflect about ………………… of the incoming solar radiation.
  • A
    one half
  • one-fourth
  • C
    one tenth
  • D
    three-fourth
Answer
Correct option: B.
one-fourth
one-fourth
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MCQ 1221 Mark
Why naturally occurring greenhouse effect is important?
  • It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
  • B
    It maintains the temperature of earth at 18 °C.
  • C
    It maintains lot of greenery on the surface of the earth.
  • D
    It maintains level of ozone in atmosphere.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
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MCQ 1231 Mark
Which is the chief reason of global warming ?
  • Greenhouse effect
  • B
    Absorption of UV radiations by ozone
  • C
    Effect of visible light
  • D
    Trapping of radio waves
Answer
Correct option: A.
Greenhouse effect
Greenhouse effect
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MCQ 1241 Mark
The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are
  • CO2 and CH4
  • B
    CH4 and N2O
  • C
    CFCs and N2O
  • D
    CO2 and N2
Answer
Correct option: A.
CO2 and CH4
CO2 and CH4
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MCQ 1251 Mark
Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) greenhouse gases that contribute to the total global warming ?
  • CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
  • B
    CO2 40%, CFCs 30%
  • C
    N2O 6%, CO2 86%
  • D
    Methane 20%, N2O 18%
Answer
Correct option: A.
CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
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MCQ 1261 Mark
Greenhouse effect is warming due to
  • A
    infra-red rays reaching earth
  • B
    moisture layer in the atmosphere
  • increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
  • D
    ozone layer in the atmosphere
Answer
Correct option: C.
increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
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MCQ 1271 Mark
Which metals are recovered from recycling of E-waste ?
  • Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
  • B
    Platinum, aluminium, silicon, silver and rhodium.
  • C
    Sodium, iron, silicon, uranium and potassium.
  • D
    Copper, radium, zinc, cobalt and titanium.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
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MCQ 1281 Mark
For treatment of e-waste, which is the most suitable solution ?
  • Recycling and recovery
  • B
    Buried in landfills
  • C
    Incineration
  • D
    Disposal and storage in open
Answer
Correct option: A.
Recycling and recovery
Recycling and recovery
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MCQ 1291 Mark
Which is valid suggestion for responsible citizen to deal with managing non- biodegradable waste ?
  • A
    Mixing of biodegradable and recyclable waste material.
  • B
    Mixing of biodegradable and non- biodegradable waste material.
  • C
    Use of more and more disposable material.
  • Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.
Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.
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MCQ 1301 Mark
Which is appropriate method for disposal of hospital wastes ?
  • A
    Sanitary landfills
  • B
    Open dumps
  • Use of incinerators
  • D
    Composting
Answer
Correct option: C.
Use of incinerators
Use of incinerators
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MCQ 1311 Mark
From the following, which is a recyclable waste ?
  • A
    Food waste
  • Newspaper
  • C
    Leather
  • D
    Rubber
Answer
Correct option: B.
Newspaper
Newspaper
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MCQ 1321 Mark
From the following, which is not a category of sorting of waste ?
  • A
    Recyclable
  • B
    Biodegradable
  • C
    Non-biodegradable
  • Explosive
Answer
Correct option: D.
Explosive
Explosive
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MCQ 1331 Mark
Which is adverse effect of sanitary land fill noticed occasionally?
  • A
    Breeding place for rats and flies.
  • Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
  • C
    Burning of hazardous waste.
  • D
    Accumulation of biodegradable materials.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
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MCQ 1341 Mark
Which statement correctly describes the process of waste disposal in sanitary landfill ?
  • A
    Solid wastes are dumped in a trench or depression.
  • B
    Solid wastes are dumped in a depression and compacted.
  • Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
  • D
    Solid wastes are dumped in a trench and burnt to reduce volume.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
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MCQ 1351 Mark
What is the appropriate scientific method for waste disposed ?
  • A
    Land fill
  • B
    Open burning dump
  • Sanitary landfill
  • D
    Open dumps (Junk yards)
Answer
Correct option: C.
Sanitary landfill
Sanitary landfill
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MCQ 1361 Mark
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution of water bodies receiving effluents from
  • A
    domestic sewage
  • B
    dairy industry
  • petroleum industry
  • D
    sugar industry
Answer
Correct option: C.
petroleum industry
petroleum industry
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MCQ 1371 Mark
Which method was commonly practised for managing solid waste generated by municipal bodies ?
  • A
    Open dumps
  • Open burning dumps
  • C
    Accumulation in trenches
  • D
    Accumulation in water bodies
Answer
Correct option: B.
Open burning dumps
Open burning dumps
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MCQ 1381 Mark
Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because
  • A
    excessive carbon dioxide is added to water
  • B
    it gives off a bad smell
  • C
    it removes the food eaten by the fish
  • it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen
Answer
Correct option: D.
it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen
it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen
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MCQ 1391 Mark
Which river of India is considered as an unending sewer ?
  • A
    Mula in Pune
  • B
    Panchaganga in Kolhapur
  • Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
  • D
    Patalganga in Panvel
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
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MCQ 1401 Mark
When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its BOD will
  • increase
  • B
    decrease
  • C
    sharply decrease
  • D
    remain unchanged
Answer
Correct option: A.
increase
increase
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MCQ 1411 Mark
High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that
  • A
    consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
  • B
    water is pure
  • water is highly polluted
  • D
    water is less polluted
Answer
Correct option: C.
water is highly polluted
water is highly polluted
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MCQ 1421 Mark
Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for
  • estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
  • B
    working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
  • C
    measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale.
  • D
    working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
Answer
Correct option: A.
estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
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MCQ 1431 Mark
Eutrophication is caused by
  • A
    acid rain
  • nitrates and phosphates
  • C
    sulphates and carbonates
  • D
    CO2 and CO
Answer
Correct option: B.
nitrates and phosphates
nitrates and phosphates
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MCQ 1441 Mark
Choose the incorrect statement from the following statements
  • A
    Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta.
  • B
    One can save lot of water if flush is not used for sanitation.
  • C
    Ecological sanitation is a practical, hygienic, efficient and cost-effective solution to human waste disposed.
  • Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.
Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.
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MCQ 1451 Mark
Which of the statement is incorrect with reference to thermal waste water ?
  • A
    Thermal wastewater eliminates or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature.
  • B
    Thermal wastewater may enhance the growth of plants and fish in extremely cold areas.
  • C
    Thermal wastewater causes damage to the indigenous flora and fauna.
  • Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.
Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.
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MCQ 1461 Mark
Which major pollutant is released from electricity generating units ?
  • heated water
  • B
    arsenic
  • C
    cadmium
  • D
    ammonia
Answer
Correct option: A.
heated water
heated water
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MCQ 1471 Mark
Choose the correct statement
  • A
    Concentration of DDT in the water declined with the passing time.
  • B
    Concentration of DDT in the water remains the same over many years without any effect.
  • C
    If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds.
  • D
    If concentration of DDT is 25 ppm in water, in fish-eating bird population it reduces to 0.003 ppb later.
Answer
If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds
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MCQ 1481 Mark
Which two substances are well-known for biomagnification ?
  • Mercury and DDT
  • B
    Cadmium and Lead
  • C
    Petroleum hydrocarbons and sewage
  • D
    Paper manufacturing effluents and copper
Answer
Correct option: A.
Mercury and DDT
Mercury and DDT
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MCQ 1491 Mark
Which is world’s most problematic aquatic weed ?
  • A
    Hydrilla
  • B
    Pistia
  • Eichhornia crassipes
  • D
    Duckweed
Answer
Correct option: C.
Eichhornia crassipes
Eichhornia crassipes
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MCQ 1501 Mark
When there are excessive microorganisms in the water that cause biodegradation there is
  • A
    sharp rise in the dissolved oxygen content
  • sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
  • C
    refreshing odour to the water
  • D
    loss of algal population
Answer
Correct option: B.
sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
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MCQ 1511 Mark
What is the outcome of algal bloom ?
  • A
    Lots of algae available for fodder.
  • B
    Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.
  • C
    Cleaning up of the ambient water.
  • D
    Decrease in BOD amount.
Answer
Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality
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MCQ 1521 Mark
A mere ………………… impurities make water contaminated with domestic sewage unfit for human use.
  • A
    0.8 %
  • B
    0.7 %
  • C
    0.5 %
  • D
    0.1 %
Answer
View full question & answer
MCQ 1531 Mark
When was Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act passed by the Government of India ?
  • 1974
  • B
    1984
  • C
    1986
  • D
    1992
Answer
Correct option: A.
1974
1974
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MCQ 1541 Mark
Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level
  • A
    above 30 dB
  • above 80 dB
  • C
    above 100 dB
  • D
    above 120 dB
Answer
Correct option: B.
above 80 dB
above 80 dB
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MCQ 1551 Mark
dB is the standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of
  • A
    the density of bacteria in a medium
  • a particular pollutant
  • C
    the dominant Bacillus in a culture
  • D
    a certain pesticide
Answer
Correct option: B.
a particular pollutant
a particular pollutant
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MCQ 1561 Mark
To what decibel level noise rises during festive seasons due to crackers ?
  • A
    20 dB
  • B
    50 dB
  • 100 dB
  • D
    150 dB
Answer
Correct option: C.
100 dB
100 dB
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MCQ 1571 Mark
How much decibel sound is produced by the jet plane or rocket ?
  • A
    50 dB
  • B
    80 dB
  • 150 dB
  • D
    200 dB
Answer
Correct option: C.
150 dB
150 dB
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MCQ 1581 Mark
Acid rains are produced by
  • excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
  • B
    excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas
  • C
    excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
  • D
    excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration
Answer
Correct option: A.
excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
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MCQ 1591 Mark
How does CO affect plant respiration ?
  • A
    By yellowing leaves
  • B
    By closing stomatal openings
  • By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
  • D
    By causing defoliation and leaf lesions
Answer
Correct option: C.
By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
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MCQ 1601 Mark
Which of the following is not the measure to reduce the noise pollution ?
  • A
    Delimitation of horn-free zones around hospitals and schools.
  • B
    Permissible sound-levels of crackers and of loudspeakers.
  • C
    Time limits after which loudspeakers cannot be played.
  • Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.
Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.
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MCQ 1611 Mark
When was Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act amended to include noise as an air Pollutant ?
  • A
    1981
  • B
    1984
  • C
    1986
  • 1987
Answer
Correct option: D.
1987
1987
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MCQ 1621 Mark
What was observed within a period of 1997 and 2005 in Delhi as regards to air quality ?
  • A
    There was net increase in all the types of air pollutants.
  • B
    Delhi became totally pollution-free during this period only.
  • There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.
  • D
    There was decrease in the concentration of H2S and CO.
Answer
Correct option: C.
There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.
There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.
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MCQ 1631 Mark
Which of the following statements is inaccurate ?
  • A
    All automobiles should have Euro-III emission norm compliant automobiles and fuels by 2010.
  • B
    All automobiles and fuel-petrol and diesel – were to have met the Euro-III emission specifications in major 11 cities from April 1, 2005.
  • C
    All automobiles should have to meet the Euro-IV norms by April 1, 2010.
  • Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.
Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.
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MCQ 1641 Mark
Which are the other equivalent norms to Euro-II norms ?
  • Bharat stage II
  • B
    Euro-III
  • C
    Euro-IV
  • D
    Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
Answer
Correct option: A.
Bharat stage II
Bharat stage II
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MCQ 1651 Mark
Which is the worst polluted city among the world with respect to air pollution ?
  • A
    New York
  • B
    Tokyo
  • New Delhi
  • D
    Dubai
Answer
Correct option: C.
New Delhi
New Delhi
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MCQ 1661 Mark
Two thirds of sulphur dioxides are produced by
  • A
    heating plants
  • B
    industrial processes
  • C
    automobile traffic
  • electric power plants
Answer
Correct option: D.
electric power plants
electric power plants
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MCQ 1671 Mark
Which part of the electrostatic precipitator attract the charged dust particles ?
  • Collection plates
  • B
    Electrode wires
  • C
    Corona
  • D
    Dust particles
Answer
Correct option: A.
Collection plates
Collection plates
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MCQ 1681 Mark
Which expensive metals are fitted into catalytic converters of the automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases ?
  • Platinum-palladium and rhodium
  • B
    Silver, Gold
  • C
    Platinum and Gold
  • D
    Rhodium and Silver
Answer
Correct option: A.
Platinum-palladium and rhodium
Platinum-palladium and rhodium
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MCQ 1691 Mark
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because
  • A
    lead causes pollution
  • lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
  • C
    lead makes automobile machinery inefficient
  • D
    lead causes more consumption of petrol
Answer
Correct option: B.
lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
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MCQ 1701 Mark
When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the carbon monoxide and nitric oxide ?
  • They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
  • B
    They are changed to oxygen and carbon monoxide respectively.
  • C
    They are converted into hydrocarbons.
  • D
    They remain unchanged.
Answer
Correct option: A.
They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
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MCQ 1711 Mark
When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the unburnt hydrocarbons ?
  • A
    They are converted to oxygen and water.
  • B
    They are converted to energy to run the car.
  • They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
  • D
    They are converted to carbonates.
Answer
Correct option: C.
They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
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MCQ 1721 Mark
According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health ?
  • 2.5 or less
  • B
    1.5 or less
  • C
    1.0 or less
  • D
    Between 2.5-5.3
Answer
Correct option: A.
2.5 or less
2.5 or less
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MCQ 1731 Mark
Which particles are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health ?
  • A
    Particulates with size 1.00 micrometres in diameter.
  • B
    Particulates with size of 10 mm.
  • Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
  • D
    Particulates with size of 100 micrometres in diameter
Answer
Correct option: C.
Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
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MCQ 1741 Mark
Which part of the electrostatic precipitator is maintained at several thousand volts ?
  • A
    Collection plates
  • Electrode wires
  • C
    Corona
  • D
    Water line spray
Answer
Correct option: B.
Electrode wires
Electrode wires
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MCQ 1751 Mark
Scrubber removes gases like
  • A
    Ozone
  • B
    Carbon dioxide
  • Sulphur dioxide
  • D
    Methane
Answer
Correct option: C.
Sulphur dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
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MCQ 1761 Mark
What is the percentage of particulate matter removed from the thermal power exhaust with the help of electrostatic precipitator ?
  • A
    25 %
  • B
    50 %
  • C
    80 %
  • 99 %
Answer
Correct option: D.
99 %
99 %
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MCQ 1771 Mark
Which equipment is most widely used for filtering out particulate matter ?
  • A
    Scrubber
  • Electrostatic precipitator
  • C
    Filters
  • D
    Centrifuges
Answer
Correct option: B.
Electrostatic precipitator
Electrostatic precipitator
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MCQ 1781 Mark
Harmful effects of air pollution does not depend on the
  • A
    concentration of pollutants
  • B
    duration of exposure
  • C
    the type of organism
  • time of the day
Answer
Correct option: D.
time of the day
time of the day
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MCQ 1791 Mark
Which of the following can be considered as the most hazardous effect of air pollution ?
  • A
    Reduction in the growth and yield of the crop.
  • B
    Premature death of the plants.
  • C
    Effect on the monuments.
  • Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.
Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.
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MCQ 1801 Mark
A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
  • A
    gases like ozone and methane
  • B
    particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
  • gases like sulphur dioxide
  • D
    particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
Answer
Correct option: C.
gases like sulphur dioxide
gases like sulphur dioxide
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MCQ 1811 Mark
How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of oxygen into the body tissues ?
  • A
    By destroying haemoglobin.
  • B
    By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin.
  • C
    By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin.
  • D
    By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide.
Answer
By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin
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MCQ 1821 Mark
Which is the most dangerous and common kind of environmental pollution ?
  • Air
  • B
    Water
  • C
    Noise
  • D
    Radioactive
Answer
Correct option: A.
Air
Air
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MCQ 1831 Mark
The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in …………………
  • A
    1975
  • 1981
  • C
    1985
  • D
    1990
Answer
Correct option: B.
1981
1981
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MCQ 1841 Mark
Which of the following expanded form of the given acronyms is correct?
  • A
    IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change.
  • B
    UNEP = United Nations Environment Policy.
  • C
    EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency.
  • D
    IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
Answer
IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
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MCQ 1851 Mark
The World Biodiversity Day is observed on ………………..
  • A
    22nd April
  • B
    5th June
  • C
    3rd March
  • 22nd May
Answer
Correct option: D.
22nd May
22nd May
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MCQ 1861 Mark
The organization which publishes the Red List of species is …………………
  • A
    UNEP
  • B
    WWF
  • C
    ICFRE
  • IUCN
Answer
Correct option: D.
IUCN
IUCN
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MCQ 1871 Mark
In which of the following, both pairs have correct combination ?
  • A
    In-situ conservation : Tissue culture Ex-situ conservation : Sacred groves
  • B
    In-situ conservation : National Park Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden
  • C
    In-situ conservation : Cryopreservation Ex-situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
  • D
    In-situ conservation : Seed Bank Ex-situ conservation : National Park
Answer
In-situ conservation : National Park, Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden
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MCQ 1881 Mark
Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as ………………..
  • A
    In-situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
  • B
    In-situ conservation of biodiversity
  • Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
  • D
    In-situ conservation by sacred groves
Answer
Correct option: C.
Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
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MCQ 1891 Mark
Which of the following is not an example of ex-situ conservation of biodiversity ?
  • A
    Botanical gardens
  • B
    Culture collections
  • C
    Zoological parks
  • Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity
Answer
Correct option: D.
Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity
Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity
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MCQ 1901 Mark
Which of the following is not the outcome of preserving biodiversity ?
  • A
    To maintain the ecological processes.
  • B
    To build national economy.
  • C
    To study life in its natural habitats.
  • To disturb ecological balance.
Answer
Correct option: D.
To disturb ecological balance.
To disturb ecological balance.
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MCQ 1911 Mark
Hotspots are the examples of …………………..
  • in-situ conservation
  • B
    ex-situ conservation
  • C
    wildlife protection
  • D
    water conservation
Answer
Correct option: A.
in-situ conservation
in-situ conservation
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MCQ 1921 Mark
Chipko andolan movement is to protect the ………………….
  • A
    flora
  • B
    fauna
  • trees
  • D
    rivers
Answer
Correct option: C.
trees
trees
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MCQ 1931 Mark
Find the odd one out
  • A
    Seed banks
  • B
    Gene banks
  • C
    In vitro fertilization
  • Electrophoresis
Answer
Correct option: D.
Electrophoresis
Electrophoresis
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MCQ 1941 Mark
Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using ………………… techniques.
  • cryopreservation
  • B
    tissue culture
  • C
    formalin preservation
  • D
    DNA hybridization
Answer
Correct option: A.
cryopreservation
cryopreservation
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MCQ 1951 Mark
Which of the following does not offer ex-situ conservation to the flora and fauna ?
  • A
    Zoological parks
  • B
    Botanical gardens
  • Sanctuaries
  • D
    Gene banks
Answer
Correct option: C.
Sanctuaries
Sanctuaries
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MCQ 1961 Mark
The region with very high levels of species richness is called
  • Biodiversity hotspot
  • B
    National Park
  • C
    Sanctuary
  • D
    Biosphere
Answer
Correct option: A.
Biodiversity hotspot
Biodiversity hotspot
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MCQ 1971 Mark
Which of the following suffers due to co-extinction ?
  • A
    Selection of mates for reproduction
  • Plant-pollinator mutualism
  • C
    Feeding preferences
  • D
    Prey-predator relationships
Answer
Correct option: B.
Plant-pollinator mutualism
Plant-pollinator mutualism
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MCQ 1981 Mark
The phenomena of co-extinction is observed when ………………….
  • host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
  • B
    parasites are killed, the host too suffers
  • C
    host-parasite relationship is terminated
  • D
    parasites overpower the host
Answer
Correct option: A.
host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
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MCQ 1991 Mark
Introduction of which aquaculture fish has created threat to the indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers ?
  • A
    Clarias gariepinus
  • B
    Arius sps.
  • C
    Heteropneustus Jossilis
  • D
    Pangasius pangasius
Answer
Clarlas gariepinus
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MCQ 2001 Mark
What are the ‘The Evil Quartet’ for the loss of biodiversity ?
  • Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
  • B
    Pollution, Global warming, Increasing population, Reclamation
  • C
    Greenhouse effect, Sea level rise, Air pollution, Deforestation
  • D
    Agriculture, Industrialization, Urbanization, Constructing transport facilities
Answer
Correct option: A.
Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
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MCQ 2011 Mark
Deforestation does not lead to
  • quick nutrient cycling
  • B
    soil erosion
  • C
    alteration of local weather condition
  • D
    destruction of natural habitat of wild animals
Answer
Correct option: A.
quick nutrient cycling
quick nutrient cycling
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MCQ 2021 Mark
Which animal group is more vulnerable to the process of extinction ?
  • Amphibian
  • B
    Reptilia
  • C
    Aves
  • D
    Mammalia
Answer
Correct option: A.
Amphibian
Amphibian
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MCQ 2031 Mark
When is the serious threat developed to an ecosystem ?
  • A
    When any one or two species become extinct.
  • When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
  • C
    When native species are replaced by exotic species.
  • D
    When human beings take conservation measures.
Answer
Correct option: B.
When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
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MCQ 2041 Mark
Name the scientist who studied ecosystem by using analogy of ‘The rivet popper hypothesis’.
  • A
    John Muir
  • B
    Alexander von Humboldt
  • C
    Robert May
  • Paul Ehrlich
Answer
Correct option: D.
Paul Ehrlich
Paul Ehrlich
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MCQ 2051 Mark
Which is the most well-known pattern of biodiversity ?
  • A
    Species-Area relationship
  • Latitudinal gradient
  • C
    Longitudinal gradient
  • D
    Altitudinal gradient
Answer
Correct option: B.
Latitudinal gradient
Latitudinal gradient
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MCQ 2061 Mark
Who was Alexander von Humboldt ?
  • A
    American Population biologist
  • German naturalist and geographer
  • C
    Dutch Botanist
  • D
    French Zoologist
Answer
Correct option: B.
German naturalist and geographer
German naturalist and geographer
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MCQ 2071 Mark
Who observed that within a region, species richness increased with increasing explored area, to a certain limit ?
  • A
    Robert May
  • B
    John Muir
  • Alexander von Humboldt
  • D
    David Tilman
Answer
Correct option: C.
Alexander von Humboldt
Alexander von Humboldt
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MCQ 2081 Mark
Choose an incorrect statement:
  • A
    The relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.
  • B
    The relation between species richness and area on a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line.
  • C
    For the species-area relationships among very large areas like the entire continents, the slope of the line appears to be much steeper.
  • Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.
Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.
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MCQ 2091 Mark
Regression coefficient is shown by ……………………….. in the Humboldt’s equation [Log S = log C + Z log A] of species richness.
  • A
    S
  • Z
  • C
    A
  • D
    C
Answer
Correct option: B.
Z
Z
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MCQ 2101 Mark
Log S = log C = Z log A is the equation that depicts relation between ………………….
  • A
    population density and time
  • B
    population growth and time
  • species richness and area
  • D
    area and species migrations
Answer
Correct option: C.
species richness and area
species richness and area
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MCQ 2111 Mark
Which of the following is the possible cause for greater biodiversity in the tropics?
  • Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
  • B
    Lesser technological development.
  • C
    Traditional and religious practices for conservation of nature.
  • D
    Lesser natural calamities.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
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MCQ 2121 Mark
The latitudinal gradient in the pattern of biodiversity shows that …………………
  • species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
  • B
    species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles
  • C
    species diversity decreases as we move away from the poles towards the equator
  • D
    species diversity remains constant as we move away from the poles towards the equator
Answer
Correct option: A.
species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
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MCQ 2131 Mark
Biodiversity of geographical region represents …………………….
  • A
    endangered species found in the region
  • the diversity in the organisms living in the region
  • C
    genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region
  • D
    species endemic to the region
Answer
Correct option: B.
the diversity in the organisms living in the region
the diversity in the organisms living in the region
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MCQ 2141 Mark
Biodiversity and its conservation are vital environmental issues of international concern because ……………….
  • A
    it fetches more economic progress and development
  • B
    it can attract more international tourists
  • biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
  • D
    all the animals and plants would be extinct if not taken care of
Answer
Correct option: C.
biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
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MCQ 2151 Mark
India has deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows. What kind of biodiversity is depicted in this statement?
  • A
    Geographic diversity
  • B
    Species diversity
  • Ecological diversity
  • D
    Genetic diversity
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ecological diversity
Ecological diversity
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MCQ 2161 Mark
Which of the following country has the greatest ecosystem diversity?
  • A
    Norway
  • India
  • C
    Sweden
  • D
    Finland
Answer
Correct option: B.
India
India
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MCQ 2171 Mark
Rauwolfia vomitoria shows …………………. in terms of the potency and concentration of reserpine that it produces.
  • genetic diversity
  • B
    species diversity
  • C
    ecological diversity
  • D
    biodiversity
Answer
Correct option: A.
genetic diversity
genetic diversity
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MCQ 2181 Mark
Diversification of plant life appeared ……………………
  • due to long periods of evolutionary changes
  • B
    due to abrupt mutations
  • C
    suddenly on the earth
  • D
    by seed dispersal
Answer
Correct option: A.
due to long periods of evolutionary changes
due to long periods of evolutionary changes
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MCQ 2191 Mark
Diversity in living beings is due to ……………………
  • A
    mutation
  • long term evolutionary change
  • C
    gradual change
  • D
    short term evolutionary change
Answer
Correct option: B.
long term evolutionary change
long term evolutionary change
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