Question 15 Marks
Answer
View full question & answer→i. $f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}|x|+1, & x<0 \\ 0, & x=0 \\ |x|-1, & x>0\end{array}\right.$
At x = 0,
$\begin{array}{l}\text { RHL }=\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} f(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} f(0+h) \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0}|0+h|-1 \\ =-1\end{array}$
$LHL =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0^{-}} f(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} f|0-h|$
$\begin{array}{l}=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0}|0-h|+1 \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0}-(0-h)+1 \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} h+1 \\ =0+1=1 \\ \Rightarrow \text { RHL } \neq \text { LHL } \\ \Rightarrow \text { At } x=0, \text { limi does not exist. }\end{array}$
Hence, $\lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x)$ exists for all $a \neq 0$.
ii. Let $f(x)=\cos \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)$
By using first principle of derivative
We have,
$\begin{array}{l}f^{\prime}(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} \\ \Rightarrow f^{\prime}(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{\cos \left(x+h-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)-\cos \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)}{b}\left[\because f(x)=\cos \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)\right] \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{-2 \sin \left(\frac{\left.x+h-\frac{\pi}{8}+x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)}{2}\right) \sin \left(\frac{x+h-\frac{\pi}{8}-x+\frac{\pi}{8}}{2}\right)}{h} \\ {\left[\because \cos C-\cos D=-2 \sin \left(\frac{C+D}{2}\right) \sin \left(\frac{C-D}{2}\right)\right]}\end{array}$
$\begin{array}{l}=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{-2 \sin \frac{2 x-2\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)+h}{2}}{2 \times \frac{h}{2}} \\ =-\sin \frac{2 x-2\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)+0}{2} \times 1\left[\therefore \lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \frac{h}{2}}{\frac{h}{2}}=1\right] \\ =-\sin \frac{2\left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)}{2} \\ \Rightarrow f^{\prime}(x)=-\sin \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)\end{array}$
At x = 0,
$\begin{array}{l}\text { RHL }=\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} f(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} f(0+h) \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0}|0+h|-1 \\ =-1\end{array}$
$LHL =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0^{-}} f(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} f|0-h|$
$\begin{array}{l}=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0}|0-h|+1 \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0}-(0-h)+1 \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} h+1 \\ =0+1=1 \\ \Rightarrow \text { RHL } \neq \text { LHL } \\ \Rightarrow \text { At } x=0, \text { limi does not exist. }\end{array}$
Hence, $\lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x)$ exists for all $a \neq 0$.
ii. Let $f(x)=\cos \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)$
By using first principle of derivative
We have,
$\begin{array}{l}f^{\prime}(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} \\ \Rightarrow f^{\prime}(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{\cos \left(x+h-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)-\cos \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)}{b}\left[\because f(x)=\cos \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)\right] \\ =\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{-2 \sin \left(\frac{\left.x+h-\frac{\pi}{8}+x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)}{2}\right) \sin \left(\frac{x+h-\frac{\pi}{8}-x+\frac{\pi}{8}}{2}\right)}{h} \\ {\left[\because \cos C-\cos D=-2 \sin \left(\frac{C+D}{2}\right) \sin \left(\frac{C-D}{2}\right)\right]}\end{array}$
$\begin{array}{l}=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{-2 \sin \frac{2 x-2\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)+h}{2}}{2 \times \frac{h}{2}} \\ =-\sin \frac{2 x-2\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)+0}{2} \times 1\left[\therefore \lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \frac{h}{2}}{\frac{h}{2}}=1\right] \\ =-\sin \frac{2\left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)}{2} \\ \Rightarrow f^{\prime}(x)=-\sin \left(x-\frac{\pi}{8}\right)\end{array}$