Question 13 Marks
If $\Delta=\left|\begin{array}{ccc} A x & x^2 & 1 \\ B y & y^2 & 1 \\ C z & z^2 & 1\end{array}\right|$ and $\Delta_1=\left|\begin{array}{ccc} A & B & C \\ x & y & z \\ z y & z x & x y\end{array}\right|$ then prove that $\Delta-\Delta_1=0$
Answer
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\begin{aligned}
\Delta_1 & =\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
A & B & C \\
x & y & z \\
z y & z x & x y
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{lll}
A & x & y z \\
B & y & z x \\
C & z & x y
\end{array}\right| \\
& =\frac{1}{x y z}\left|\begin{array}{lll}
A x & x^2 & x y z \\
B y & y^2 & x y z \\
C z & z^2 & x y z
\end{array}\right| \\
& =\frac{x y z}{x y z}\left|\begin{array}{lll}
A x & x^2 & 1 \\
B y & y^2 & 1 \\
C z & z^2 & 1
\end{array}\right|=\Delta
\end{aligned}
$
$\Delta-\Delta_1=0$ Hence proved.
\begin{aligned}
\Delta_1 & =\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
A & B & C \\
x & y & z \\
z y & z x & x y
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{lll}
A & x & y z \\
B & y & z x \\
C & z & x y
\end{array}\right| \\
& =\frac{1}{x y z}\left|\begin{array}{lll}
A x & x^2 & x y z \\
B y & y^2 & x y z \\
C z & z^2 & x y z
\end{array}\right| \\
& =\frac{x y z}{x y z}\left|\begin{array}{lll}
A x & x^2 & 1 \\
B y & y^2 & 1 \\
C z & z^2 & 1
\end{array}\right|=\Delta
\end{aligned}
$
$\Delta-\Delta_1=0$ Hence proved.