Question 13 Marks
Let $A =\{-1, 0, 1, 2\}, B = \{-4, -2, 0, 2\}$ and $f, g : A \rightarrow B $ be the functions defined by $f(x) = x^2 - x, x \in A$ and $g(x) = 2\left| {x - \frac{1}{2}} \right| - 1,x \in A$. Are $f$ and $g$ equal? Justify your answer.
(Hint: One may note that two functions $f : A \rightarrow B$ and $g : A \rightarrow B$ such that $f(a) = g(a)$ $\forall$ a $\in A,$ are called equal functions).
(Hint: One may note that two functions $f : A \rightarrow B$ and $g : A \rightarrow B$ such that $f(a) = g(a)$ $\forall$ a $\in A,$ are called equal functions).
Answer
View full question & answer→When $\mathrm{x}=-1$ then $\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})=1^2+1=2$ and $g(x)=2\left|-1-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=2$
At $\mathrm{x}=0, \mathrm{f}(0)=0$ and $g(0)=2\left|-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=2 \times \frac{1}{2}-1=0$
At $\mathrm{x}=1, \mathrm{f}(1)=1^2-1=0$ and $g(1)=2\left|1-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=2 \times \frac{1}{2}-1=0$
At $x=2, f(2)=2^2-2=2$ and $g(2)=2\left|2-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=3-1=2$
Thus for each $a \in A, f(a)=g(a)$
Therefore, $f$ and $g$ are equal function.
At $\mathrm{x}=0, \mathrm{f}(0)=0$ and $g(0)=2\left|-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=2 \times \frac{1}{2}-1=0$
At $\mathrm{x}=1, \mathrm{f}(1)=1^2-1=0$ and $g(1)=2\left|1-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=2 \times \frac{1}{2}-1=0$
At $x=2, f(2)=2^2-2=2$ and $g(2)=2\left|2-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=3-1=2$
Thus for each $a \in A, f(a)=g(a)$
Therefore, $f$ and $g$ are equal function.